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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old patient presents with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other systemic health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor and a greyish-white appearance in the discharge.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this change?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is accurate?

      Your Answer: It increases the duration of the action potential

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You review the blood results of a 65-year-old woman. Her full blood count...

    Incorrect

    • You review the blood results of a 65-year-old woman. Her full blood count is shown below:

      Hb 11.9 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
      MCV 82 fl (80-100 fl)
      WCC 18.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
      Neut 4.0 x 109/l (2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      Lymph 13.3 x 109/l (1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
      Platelets 156 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most common type of leukaemia in adults. It occurs when mature lymphocytes multiply uncontrollably. About 95% of cases are of B-cell lineage.

      CLL is typically a slow-growing form of leukaemia and is often discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. As the disease progresses, patients may experience swollen lymph nodes, enlarged liver and spleen, anemia, and increased susceptibility to infections.

      This condition primarily affects adult men, with over 75% of CLL patients being men over the age of 50.

      A blood test for CLL usually reveals an increased number of lymphocytes (typically more than 5 x 109/l, but it can be higher). Advanced stages of the disease may also show normochromic, normocytic anemia. A peripheral blood smear can confirm the presence of lymphocytosis, and smudge cells are often observed.

      The Binet system is used to stage CLL, categorizing it as follows:
      – Stage A: Hemoglobin (Hb) levels above 10 g/dl, platelet count above 100 x 109/l, involvement of fewer than 3 lymph node areas.
      – Stage B: Hb levels above 10 g/dl, platelet count above 100 x 109/l, involvement of more than 3 lymph node areas.
      – Stage C: Hb levels below 10 g/dl, platelet count below 100 x 109/l, or both.

      Early stages of CLL (Binet stage A and B without active disease) do not require immediate treatment and can be monitored through regular follow-up and blood tests. Patients with more advanced disease have various treatment options available, including monoclonal antibodies (such as rituximab), purine analogues (like fludarabine), and alkylating agents (such as chlorambucil).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills 45 minutes ago following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets in total, consisting of four or five different types. These tablets were sourced from their grandparents medication, although the patient is uncertain about their specific names. They mention the possibility of one tablet being called bisoprolol. What is the recommended antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is the preferred initial treatment for beta-blocker poisoning when there are symptoms of slow heart rate and low blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      36.7
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  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past three weeks. The cough occurs in short bursts with an inspiration followed by a series of hacking coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. She mentions that the cough is worse at night and that she has fainted once during a coughing fit. She is otherwise healthy, and her vaccinations are up-to-date.

      Upon examination, her chest is clear, but there are three small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some petechiae on her face. A complete blood count reveals a lymphocyte count of 22 x 109/l (1.3-3.5 x 109/l).

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pertussis

      Explanation:

      This presentation strongly indicates a diagnosis of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. Whooping cough is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. The disease is highly contagious and can be transmitted to around 90% of close household contacts.

      The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage is called the catarrhal stage, which resembles a mild respiratory infection with low-grade fever and symptoms similar to a cold. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild and not as severe as in the second stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.

      The second stage is known as the paroxysmal stage. During this stage, the characteristic paroxysmal cough develops as the symptoms from the catarrhal stage start to improve. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound, followed by a series of rapid coughs. Vomiting may occur, and patients may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between coughing spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this stage are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.

      Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures. It is important to note that a history of vaccination does not guarantee immunity, as it only provides about 95% protection.

      The presence of marked lymphocytosis in this case also supports a diagnosis of pertussis, as it is a common finding. A lymphocyte count greater than 20 x 109/l is highly suggestive of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old woman comes in with postmenopausal bleeding. Her medical records indicate that...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes in with postmenopausal bleeding. Her medical records indicate that she recently underwent a transvaginal ultrasound, which revealed an endometrial thickness of 6.5 mm. What is the MOST suitable next step in investigating her condition?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first-line investigation for this condition is transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.

      In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. The likelihood of endometrial cancer increases as the endometrium becomes thicker. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness of 5 mm is considered the threshold.

      If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer. However, if a woman with postmenopausal bleeding has a uniform endometrial thickness of less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%.

      In cases where there is a high clinical risk, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should also be performed. The definitive diagnosis is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the street and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her condition is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also administer tranexamic acid and give an initial dose of 1 g intravenously over a period of 10 minutes.
      What should be the subsequent dose of tranexamic acid and how long should it be administered for?

      Your Answer: 1 g IV over 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 1 g IV over 8 hours

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.

      It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a journey to South America with a fever, headache, and feeling nauseous. After a diagnosis, it is determined that she has contracted yellow fever.

      Upon examination, it is observed that she has an uncommon combination of an extremely high body temperature (39.7°C) and a relative bradycardia (48 bpm).

      What is the name of the clinical sign that she has developed, which is named after a person?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faget sign

      Explanation:

      Faget sign is a unique occurrence where a fever and a relatively slow heart rate, known as bradycardia, are observed together. This phenomenon is sometimes called sphygmothermic dissociation. It can be observed in various infectious diseases, such as yellow fever, typhoid fever, tularaemia, brucellosis, Colorado tick fever, Legionella pneumonia, and Mycoplasma pneumonia. Normally, when a person has a fever, their heart rate increases, but in cases of Faget sign, the heart rate remains slow. Another term used to describe the combination of fever and increased heart rate is Leibermeister’s rule.

      Auspitz’s sign is a characteristic feature seen in psoriasis. When the scales of psoriasis are scraped off, small bleeding spots, known as punctate bleeding spots, appear. This sign helps in the diagnosis of psoriasis.

      Frank sign is a term used to describe a diagonal crease that appears on the earlobe. It has been hypothesized that this crease may be linked to cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

      Levine’s sign refers to a specific response to chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, known as ischemic chest pain. In this sign, the person clenches their fist and holds it over their chest in an instinctive reaction to the pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 10 - You are resuscitating a 38-year-old male patient with extensive burns. Your attending physician...

    Incorrect

    • You are resuscitating a 38-year-old male patient with extensive burns. Your attending physician requests you to insert a femoral central venous line. How should the patient be positioned for this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient supine with slight abduction and external rotation of thigh/hip

      Explanation:

      To insert a femoral line, the patient should be lying on their back with a pillow placed under their buttocks to elevate the groin area. The thigh should be slightly moved away from the body and rotated outward.

      Further Reading:

      A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.

      When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.

      The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.

      In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.

      Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.

      On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These symptoms are often present in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be very high when her blood is tested.
      Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm the diagnosis, it is important to establish that his blood glucose levels are high, he has significant ketonuria or ketonaemia, and that he is experiencing acidosis. Therefore, out of the options provided, a urine dipstick test will be the most useful.

      DKA is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to metabolize glucose. This results in hyperglycemia and an osmotic diuresis, causing excessive thirst and increased urine production. If the urine output exceeds the patient’s ability to drink, dehydration becomes inevitable. Additionally, without insulin, fat becomes the primary energy source, leading to the production of large amounts of ketones and metabolic acidosis.

      DKA is characterized by three main factors:
      1. Hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/l)
      2. Ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/l) or significant ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick)
      3. Acidosis (bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l and/or venous pH < 7.3) The clinical features of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, excessive urine production, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a smell of ketones on the breath (similar to pear drops), deep and rapid respiration (Kussmaul breathing), confusion or reduced consciousness, and tachycardia, hypotension, and shock. The following investigations should be performed:
      – Blood glucose measurement
      – Urine dipstick test (will show marked glycosuria and ketonuria)
      – Blood ketone assay (more sensitive and specific than urine dipstick)
      – Blood tests including full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es)
      – Arterial or venous blood gas analysis (to assess for metabolic acidosis)

      The principles of managing DKA are as follows:
      – Fluid boluses should only be given to reverse signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg aliquots. If there are no signs of shock, fluid boluses should not be given, and specialist advice should be sought if a second bolus is required.
      – Rehydration should be done with replacement therapy over 48 hours after signs of shock have been reversed.
      – The first 20 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation should be given in addition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 13 - A one-week-old infant presents with eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both...

    Incorrect

    • A one-week-old infant presents with eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both eyes shortly after birth. The diagnosis of ophthalmia neonatorum is made. What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Ophthalmia neonatorum refers to any cause of conjunctivitis during the newborn period, regardless of the specific organism responsible.

      Conjunctivitis is the most frequent occurrence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns. Chlamydia is now the leading cause, accounting for up to 40% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoea, on the other hand, only accounts for less than 1% of reported cases. The remaining cases are caused by non-sexually transmitted bacteria like Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus species, and viruses.

      Gonorrhoeal ophthalmia neonatorum typically presents within 1 to 5 days after birth. It is characterized by intense redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, eyelid swelling, and a severe discharge of pus. Corneal ulceration and perforation may also be present.

      Chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, usually appears between 5 to 14 days after birth. It is characterized by a gradually increasing watery discharge that eventually becomes purulent. The inflammation in the eyes is usually less severe compared to gonococcal infection, and there is a lower risk of corneal ulceration and perforation.

      The second most common manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns is pneumonia. Approximately 5-30% of infected neonates will develop pneumonia. About half of these infants will also have a history of ophthalmia neonatorum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given anti-tuberculous...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given anti-tuberculous medication. The mother experiences liver damage, and the newborn experiences seizures and neuropathy.
      Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.

      Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.

      Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.

      Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the birdhouse. During the examination, a red rash is noticed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.
      What is the BEST antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, known as a zoonotic infection. It is caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. This infection is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, but it can also affect those who work in pet shops or zoos.

      The typical presentation of psittacosis includes symptoms similar to those of pneumonia that is acquired within the community. People may experience flu-like symptoms along with severe headaches and sensitivity to light. In about two-thirds of patients, an enlargement of the spleen, known as splenomegaly, can be observed.

      Infected individuals often develop a reddish rash with flat spots on their face, known as Horder’s spots. Additionally, they may experience skin conditions such as erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme.

      The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline, which should be taken for a period of 2-3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She has been experiencing heart palpitations and decided to self-medicate with one of her sister's heart medications. Shortly after taking the medication, her asthma symptoms worsened.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Non-selective beta-blockers, like propranolol, can cause severe bronchospasm in individuals with asthma, particularly when taken in high doses. The current guidelines from the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommend avoiding the use of beta-blockers in asthma patients. However, there is some evidence suggesting that the long-term use of cardioselective beta-blockers does not appear to trigger asthma attacks in individuals with mild or moderate asthma.

      Beta-blockers play a crucial role in the treatment of patients who have a history of previous myocardial infarction or systolic dysfunction. In individuals with asthma and one of these diagnoses, it is unlikely that the potential benefits of beta-blockers outweigh the risks of worsening asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets of various types, which were obtained from their partner's grandparents. However, the patient is unaware of the specific names of the tablets. You contemplate administering activated charcoal. What accurately describes the mechanism of action of activated charcoal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absorbs poisons onto its surface by weak electrostatic forces

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal prevents the absorption of poisons by absorbing them onto its surface through weak electrostatic forces.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 18 - Your hospital’s neurology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s neurology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in diagnosing patients with suspected stroke. The test will use brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), neuron-specific enolase (NSE), and S100B protein.
      How long after a stroke do levels of glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) start to increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-8 hours

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - You are asked to participate in an ENT teaching session for the FY1's...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to participate in an ENT teaching session for the FY1's rotating to the emergency department and prepare slides on glandular fever.

      What is the most frequent cause of glandular fever in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a condition that is not clearly defined in medical literature. It is characterized by symptoms such as a sore throat, swollen tonsils with a whitish coating, enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, fatigue, and an enlarged liver and spleen. This condition is caused by a specific virus.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. During the history-taking,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. During the history-taking, the patient reveals a recent weight loss of approximately 10 kg over the past 6 months and the presence of hand tremors. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results confirm hyperthyroidism. What is the predominant cause of thyrotoxicosis in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma is an uncommon cause of hyperthyroidism in the United Kingdom, accounting for only a small number of cases.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What is a potential cause of post-renal AKI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Kidney stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient.
      Which of the following symptoms is MOST LIKELY to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. The majority of cases also experience peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.

      The condition is marked by acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (increase in the number of astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma....

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a patient in the resuscitation bay with suspected myxoedema coma. A member of the nursing team hands you the patient's ECG. What ECG findings would you anticipate in a patient with myxoedema coma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Patients with myxoedema coma often exhibit several common ECG abnormalities. These include bradycardia, a prolonged QT interval, and T wave flattening or inversion. Additionally, severe hypothyroidism (myxoedema) is associated with other ECG findings such as low QRS voltage, conduction blocks, and T wave inversions without ST deviation.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving in the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 145 bpm, BP is 72/38 mmHg, respiratory rate 45 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been negligible. She is drowsy, lethargic, and confused. The patient weighs approximately 70 kg.
      How would you classify her hemorrhage according to the ATLS hemorrhagic shock classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class IV

      Explanation:

      This patient is showing significant signs of distress, including a highly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as very little urine output. Additionally, they are experiencing drowsiness, lethargy, and confusion. These symptoms indicate that the patient has suffered a class IV haemorrhage at this stage.

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for haemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg patient. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five litres, accounting for around 7% of their total body weight.

      The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is summarized as follows:

      CLASS I
      Blood loss (mL): Up to 750
      Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      Pulse rate (bpm): <100
      Systolic BP: Normal
      Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      Respiratory rate: 14-20
      Urine output (ml/hr): >30
      CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II
      Blood loss (mL): 750-1500
      Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      Pulse rate (bpm): 100-120
      Systolic BP: Normal
      Pulse pressure: Decreased
      Respiratory rate: 20-30
      Urine output (ml/hr): 20-30
      CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III
      Blood loss (mL): 1500-2000
      Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      Pulse rate (bpm): 120-140
      Systolic BP: Decreased
      Pulse pressure: Decreased
      Respiratory rate: 30-40
      Urine output (ml/hr): 5-15
      CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV
      Blood loss (mL): >2000
      Blood loss (% blood volume): >40%
      Pulse rate (bpm): >140
      Systolic BP: Decreased
      Pulse pressure: Decreased
      Respiratory rate: >40
      Urine output (ml/hr): Negligible
      CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 25 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing hyperactive symptoms. During the evaluation, you observe that he is constantly repeating words. The repetitions do not appear to have any meaningful connection, but the words have similar sounds.
      Which ONE of the following symptoms is he displaying?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clang association

      Explanation:

      Clang associations refer to the grouping of words, typically rhyming words, that share similar sounds but lack any logical connection. These associations are commonly observed in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - The right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare...

    Incorrect

    • The right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare pertains to which of the subsequent principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      The principle of autonomy pertains to the right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare. Autonomy emphasizes the importance of respecting an individual’s ability to make decisions about their own health, based on their own values, beliefs, and preferences. It recognizes that individuals have the right to be informed about their healthcare options, to give informed consent, and to have their choices respected by healthcare providers. Autonomy is a fundamental principle in medical ethics that promotes patient-centered care and respects the individual’s right to self-determination.

      Further Reading:

      Principles of Medical Ethics:

      1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
      2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
      3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
      4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.

      Confidentiality:

      1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
      2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
      3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
      4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
      5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
      6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
      7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
      8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.

      Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:

      – Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.

      Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:

      – Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
      – Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
      – When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
      – When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.

      Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:

      – Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
      – If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
      – Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.

      The Law & Caldicott Guardians:

      Data Protection Act:
      – Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
      – Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
      – Individuals have rights

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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  • Question 27 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
      What dose of phenytoin is recommended in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a child who is experiencing convulsions reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, it is recommended to prepare a phenytoin infusion. This infusion should be administered at a dosage of 20 mg/kg over a period of 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was struck by a truck. She has suffered severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her C-spine is triple immobilized. You perform a LEMON assessment for difficult intubation.
      Which of the following factors indicates a difficult intubation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallampati score of 4

      Explanation:

      Trauma patients who require a definitively secured airway include those who are apnoeic, have a Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 9, experience sustained seizure activity, have unstable midface trauma or airway injuries, have a large flail segment or respiratory failure, have a high risk of aspiration, or are unable to maintain an airway or oxygenation through other means.

      To predict difficult intubations, the LEMON assessment can be utilized. The LEMON mnemonic provides a systematic approach to assess potential challenges in intubation. It stands for the following:

      – Look externally: Examine for any characteristics that are known to cause difficult intubation or ventilation.
      – Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule: Measure the incisor distance, hyoid/mental distance, and thyroid-to-mouth distance. If any of these measurements are less than the specified number of fingerbreadths, it may indicate a difficult intubation.
      – Mallampati: Assess the Mallampati score, which is a classification system based on the visibility of certain structures in the mouth and throat. A score of 3 or higher suggests a difficult intubation.
      – Obstruction: Check for the presence of any conditions that could potentially obstruct the airway.
      – Neck mobility: Evaluate the mobility of the patient’s neck, as limited mobility may make intubation more challenging.

      By utilizing the LEMON assessment, healthcare providers can identify potential difficulties in securing the airway and make appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 29 - A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and a headache. The medical team records his vital signs and takes blood samples. The results are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 192/98 mmHg
      Pulse: 84 bpm
      Respiration rate: 17 bpm
      Temperature: 36.9ºC

      Sodium (Na+): 149 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+): 3.0 mmol/l
      Urea: 3.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 81 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is the leading endocrine cause of secondary hypertension, commonly affecting individuals between the ages of 30 and 50. It is characterized by metabolic alkalosis and often presents with hypernatraemia, although normal sodium levels can also be observed. When compared to pheochromocytoma, primary hyperaldosteronism is more frequently encountered. The diagnostic test of choice is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a red, warm, swollen left...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a red, warm, swollen left knee a few days after returning from a vacation in Thailand. She also reports feeling generally sick and has a rash on her trunk. The doctor decides to send a sample of the knee fluid to the lab for testing. What is the most likely finding on Gram-stain testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-negative pairs of cocci

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.

      According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 31 - A 20-year-old woman presents with frequent urination, excessive thirst, and stomach pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with frequent urination, excessive thirst, and stomach pain. The results of her arterial blood gas (ABG) on air are as follows:

      pH: 7.21
      pO2: 11.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.1 kPa
      HCO3-: 17 mmol/l
      Na+: 149 mmol/l
      Cl–: 100 mmol/l
      Lactate: 6 IU/l

      Which SINGLE statement about this patient is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is likely to have a type B lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. While the normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, they generally fall within the following ranges:

      pH: 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
      PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
      Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/l

      In this particular case, the patient’s medical history raises concerns about a possible diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The relevant ABG findings are as follows:

      Normal PO2
      Low pH (acidaemia)
      Low PCO2
      Low bicarbonate
      Raised lactate

      The anion gap refers to the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the measurement methodology but typically falls between 8 to 16 mmol/L.

      To calculate her anion gap, we can use the formula:

      Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]

      Using the provided values, her anion gap can be calculated as:

      Anion gap = [149] – [100] – [17]
      Anion gap = 32

      Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      It is likely that she is experiencing a type B lactic acidosis secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis are listed below:

      Type A lactic acidosis:
      – Shock (including septic shock)
      – Left ventricular failure
      – Severe anemia
      – Asphyxia
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Carbon monoxide poisoning
      – Respiratory failure
      – Severe asthma and COPD
      – Regional hypoperfusion

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      – Renal failure
      – Liver failure
      – Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      – Thiamine deficiency
      – Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      – Diabetic ketoacidosis
      – Cyanide poisoning
      – Methanol poisoning
      – Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman of Asian descent comes to the Emergency Department with swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman of Asian descent comes to the Emergency Department with swelling of the face, lips, and tongue. Despite receiving IM adrenaline, her symptoms do not improve. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the primary cause of drug-induced angioedema in the UK and USA, mainly due to their widespread use. The incidence of angioedema caused by ACE inhibitors ranges from 0.1 to 0.7% among recipients, with evidence suggesting a consistent and persistent risk each year. Interestingly, individuals of African descent are approximately five times more likely to experience this adverse reaction.

      The most common symptoms observed in patients with ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema include swelling of the lips, tongue, or face. However, another manifestation of this condition is episodic abdominal pain caused by intestinal angioedema. Notably, urticaria (hives) and itching are absent in these cases.

      The underlying mechanism of ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to involve the activation of the complement system or other pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as prostaglandins and histamine. These substances trigger rapid dilation of blood vessels and the accumulation of fluid, leading to edema.

      Although less frequently associated with angioedema, other medications that may cause this condition include angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bupropion (e.g., Zyban and Wellbutrin), beta-lactam antibiotics, statins, and proton pump inhibitors.

      Fortunately, most cases of drug-induced angioedema are mild and can be effectively managed by discontinuing the medication and prescribing oral antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 33 - You are requested to educate the foundation doctors and medical students assigned to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to educate the foundation doctors and medical students assigned to the emergency department on evaluating the vomiting toddler. What is a potential risk factor for pyloric stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First born child

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants and is often seen in those with a positive family history. It is more commonly observed in first-born children and those who were bottle-fed or delivered by c-section. Additionally, it is more prevalent in white and hispanic children compared to other races and ethnicities. Smoking during pregnancy and premature birth are also associated with an increased risk of developing pyloric stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 34 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents and admits to ingesting 36 paracetamol tablets. You determine that the patient fulfills the requirements for receiving activated charcoal. What would be the appropriate dosage to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of activated charcoal for adults and children aged 12 or over to prevent the absorption of poisons in the gastrointestinal tract is 50g.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 35 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - A fourth-year medical student is studying subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and has some questions...

    Incorrect

    • A fourth-year medical student is studying subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and has some questions about the topic. What is the ONE accurate statement about SAH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SAH is associated with polycystic kidneys

      Explanation:

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) occurs when there is spontaneous bleeding into the subarachnoid space and is often a catastrophic event. The incidence of SAH is 9 cases per 100,000 people per year, and it typically affects individuals between the ages of 35 and 65.

      Approximately 80% of SAH cases are caused by the rupture of berry (saccular) aneurysms, while 15% are caused by arteriovenous malformations (AVM). In less than 5% of cases, no specific cause can be identified. Berry aneurysms are commonly associated with polycystic kidneys, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and coarctation of the aorta.

      There are several risk factors for SAH, including smoking, hypertension, bleeding disorders, alcohol misuse, and mycotic aneurysm. Additionally, a family history of SAH can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.

      Patients with SAH typically experience a sudden and severe occipital headache, often described as the worst headache of my life. This may be accompanied by symptoms such as vomiting, collapse, seizures, and coma. Clinical signs of SAH include neck stiffness, a positive Kernig’s sign, and focal neurological abnormalities. Fundoscopy may reveal subhyaloid retinal haemorrhages in approximately 25% of patients.

      Re-bleeding occurs in 30-40% of patients who survive the initial episode, with the highest risk occurring between 7 and 14 days after the initial bleed. If left untreated, SAH has a mortality rate of nearly 50% within the first eight weeks following presentation. Prolonged coma is associated with a 100% mortality rate.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the CT scan increases to nearly 100% if performed within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT scan is negative, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. The LP should be conducted at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, unless there are contraindications. Approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had a SAH following an LP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 37 - A 42 year old man is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man is brought into the emergency department after a car accident. He has significant bruising on the right side of his chest. You suspect he may have a hemothorax. When would thoracotomy be considered as a treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prompt drainage of ≥1500 ml of blood following chest drain insertion

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy is recommended when there is a need for prompt drainage of at least 1500 ml of blood following the insertion of a chest drain. Additionally, it is indicated when there is a continuous blood loss of more than 200 ml per hour for a period of 2-4 hours or when there is a persistent requirement for blood transfusion.

      Further Reading:

      Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.

      The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.

      In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 38 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.

      Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 39 - Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological,...

    Incorrect

    • Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which combination of clinical features is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis, bronchorrhoea, salivation and muscle weakness

      Explanation:

      The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.

      The first compounds to be created are called the G agents (G stands for German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).

      In the 1950s, the V agents (V stands for venomous) were synthesized and are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).

      One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 died.

      Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

      Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.

      The clinical features observed after exposure are a result of a combination of muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous system effects.

      Muscarinic effects (DUMBBELS):
      – Diarrhea
      – Urination
      – Miosis
      – Bronchorrhea
      – Bronchospasm
      – Emesis
      – Lacrimation
      – Salivation
      Plus bradycardia and hypotension.

      Nicotinic effects:
      – Sweating
      – Tremor
      – Fasciculations
      – Muscle weakness
      – Flaccid paralysis

      Central nervous system effects:
      – Agitation and irritability
      – Amnesia
      – Ataxia
      – Respiratory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
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  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right eye half an hour after a yoga session. She had observed flickering lights in the eye before the incident and also experienced a headache that persisted for a few hours. Her visual symptoms disappeared after 45 minutes, but she still experiences slight nausea.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      The presentation, in this instance, is consistent with retinal (ocular) migraine. As per the International Headache Society, the primary clinical features of retinal migraine include an expanding blind-spot in the center of vision, flickering or flashing lights, temporary loss of vision in one eye lasting less than an hour, headache lasting anywhere from 4 to 72 hours (often affecting only one side of the head), nausea and vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and a prodrome present in 50-60% of cases. Retinal migraine is relatively uncommon, affecting only 1 in 200 individuals with migraines, and is believed to occur due to the narrowing of blood vessels in the choroidal or retinal arteries. Factors that can trigger retinal migraine include recent intense exercise, changes in posture, and the use of oral contraceptives.

      Acute optic neuritis typically presents with unilateral vision loss that worsens over a couple of weeks and then spontaneously improves within three weeks. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals under the age of 45 and is often accompanied by pain around the eyes that worsens with eye movement. A relative afferent pupillary defect and pallor of the optic disc, visible 4-6 weeks after the onset, are frequently observed. The most common cause of optic neuritis in this age group is acute demyelination.

      Retinal hemorrhage leads to painless vision loss, while acute glaucoma and amaurosis fugax are unlikely to occur in individuals of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 41 - A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
      Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node

      Explanation:

      The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.

      In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.

      The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 42 - A child presents with a headache, high temperature, and a very itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a headache, high temperature, and a very itchy rash on their face and body. The doctor diagnoses the child with chickenpox. When would it be necessary to administer acyclovir through injection in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic skin disorder

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly contagious illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a DNA virus from the Herpesviridae family. Most cases are mild to moderate, and the infection usually resolves on its own. Severe complications are rare but can occur, especially in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions.

      The incubation period for chickenpox is typically between 14 to 21 days. It is contagious from a few days before the rash appears until about a week after the first lesions show up.

      The common clinical features of chickenpox include:

      – Fever, which lasts for approximately 3-5 days.
      – The initial rash starts as flat red spots and progresses into raised bumps.
      – These bumps then turn into fluid-filled blisters and eventually form pustules surrounded by redness.
      – The lesions are extremely itchy.
      – The rash reaches its peak around 48 hours in individuals with a healthy immune system.
      – The rash tends to be more concentrated on the face and trunk, with fewer lesions on the limbs.
      – The blisters eventually dry up and form crusts, which can lead to scarring if scratched.
      – Headache, fatigue, and abdominal pain may also occur.

      Chickenpox tends to be more severe in teenagers and adults compared to children. Antiviral treatment should be considered for these individuals if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of rash onset. The recommended oral dose of aciclovir is 800 mg taken five times a day for seven days.

      Immunocompromised patients and those at higher risk, such as individuals with severe cardiovascular or respiratory disease or chronic skin disorders, should receive antiviral treatment for ten days, with at least seven days of intravenous administration.

      Although most cases are relatively mild, if serious complications like pneumonia, encephalitis, or dehydration are suspected, it is important to refer the patient for hospital admission.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Chickenpox.
      https://cks.nice.org.uk/topics/chickenpox/

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 43 - A 40-year-old man has a confirmed diagnosis of von Willebrand disease.
    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has a confirmed diagnosis of von Willebrand disease.
      Which of the following abnormalities is MOST likely to appear on his clotting profile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.

      While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.

      For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 44 - A 28 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to increasing drowsiness. The patient's partner informs you that the patient was involved in a physical altercation approximately 40 minutes ago. The patient was struck in the temple and experienced a brief loss of consciousness for about 20 seconds. Initially, the patient appeared to be fine, but after approximately 20 minutes, he started to become progressively more drowsy. A CT scan reveals the presence of an extradural hematoma.

      Which vascular structure is typically injured as the underlying cause of an extradural hematoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      Extradural hematoma is most frequently caused by injury to the middle meningeal artery. This artery is particularly susceptible to damage as it passes behind the pterion.

      Further Reading:

      Extradural haematoma (EDH) is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and the outer layer of the dura, the dura mater. It is typically caused by head trauma and is often associated with a skull fracture, with the pterion being the most common site of injury. The middle meningeal artery is the most common source of bleeding in EDH.

      Clinical features of EDH include a history of head injury with transient loss of consciousness, followed by a lucid interval and gradual loss of consciousness. Other symptoms may include severe headache, sixth cranial nerve palsies, nausea and vomiting, seizures, signs of raised intracranial pressure, and focal neurological deficits.

      Imaging of EDH typically shows a biconvex shape and may cause mass effect with brain herniation. It can be differentiated from subdural haematoma by its appearance on imaging.

      Management of EDH involves prompt referral to neurosurgery for evacuation of the haematoma. In some cases with a small EDH, conservative management may be considered. With prompt evacuation, the prognosis for EDH is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. She has a history of breast cancer for which she is currently undergoing radiation therapy. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 100 bpm, BP 120/80, SaO2 95% on room air, temperature 38.5°C.
      The results of her complete blood count are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb) 9.2 g/dl
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) 80 fl
      Platelets 60 x 109/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 1.2 x 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.4 x 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.6 x 109/l
      Monocytes 0.1 x 109/l
      Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for the initial empiric treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tazocin alone

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of pancytopenia along with a fever, indicating a likely case of neutropenic sepsis. Their blood test results reveal microcytic anemia, leucopenia (with significant neutropenia), and thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can be life-threatening, characterized by a low neutrophil count. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders like aplastic anemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, and nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis in patients undergoing anticancer treatment, their neutrophil count should be 0.5 x 109 per liter or lower, and they should have either a temperature above 38°C or other signs and symptoms indicative of clinically significant sepsis. According to the current NICE guidelines, initial empiric antibiotic therapy for suspected neutropenic sepsis should involve monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is not recommended to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
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  • Question 46 - A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. He normally controls his diabetes with metformin 500 mg twice a day. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his doctor, and his family reports that he has been excessively thirsty. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and moderate ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas test are as follows:

      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l

      What is his serum osmolality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 364 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.

      The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
      – Normalize the osmolality
      – Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      – Normalize blood glucose levels

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a chief complaint of sudden vision loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a chief complaint of sudden vision loss in his right eye over the past couple of hours. During fundoscopic examination, you observe engorgement of the retinal veins and notice multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool spots scattered throughout the entire retina.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that usually leads to painless, one-sided vision loss. When examining the retina, it may appear similar to a ‘pizza thrown against a wall’, with swollen retinal veins, swelling of the optic disc, numerous flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots. Hypertension is present in about 65% of CRVO cases and is more common in individuals aged 65 and above.

      On the other hand, branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) typically affects only one section of the retina, resulting in visual field deficits in that specific quadrant rather than complete vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 48 - You evaluate a 45-year-old woman who presents with lower abdominal and pelvic pain....

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old woman who presents with lower abdominal and pelvic pain. During a bimanual vaginal examination, you detect a significant pelvic mass. She has no significant medical history or gynecological issues, such as uterine fibroids.
      What would be the MOST suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology service (for an appointment within 2 weeks)

      Explanation:

      Women who are 18 years or older and have a pelvic mass that is not clearly uterine fibroids should be promptly referred for assessment. In this case, an abdominal X-ray would not provide much useful information, and it is not advisable to take no action at this point. For more information, please refer to the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
    Which characteristic is considered...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      Which characteristic is considered to be a ‘B’ symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      The ‘B’ symptoms associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma include fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Fever is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38 degrees Celsius. Night sweats refer to excessive sweating during sleep. Weight loss is considered significant if it amounts to more than 10% of a person’s body weight over a period of six months. It is important to note that pain after consuming alcohol is a distinctive sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it is not classified as a ‘B’ symptom. This symptom is relatively rare, occurring in only 2-3% of individuals diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 50 - A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
      Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the ECG in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ashman beats have a poor prognosis

      Explanation:

      The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.

      In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.

      The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 51 - You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the ulnar nerve in his left arm.
      Which of the following muscles is MOST unlikely to be impacted in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral two lumbricals

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve provides innervation to several muscles in the hand. These include the palmar interossei, dorsal interossei, medial two lumbricals, and the abductor digiti minimi. It is important to note that the lateral two lumbricals are not affected by an ulnar nerve lesion as they are innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 52 - You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
      What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After a consultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After a consultation with the on-call dermatology consultant, the woman is diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epidermal detachment is seen in greater than 30% of the body surface area

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially deadly form of erythema multiforme. It can be triggered by anything that causes erythema multiforme, but it is most commonly seen as a reaction to medication within 1-3 weeks of starting treatment. Initially, there may be symptoms like fever, fatigue, joint pain, and digestive issues, followed by the development of severe mucocutaneous lesions that are blistering and ulcerating.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The extent of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when detachment affects between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Several drugs can potentially cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, including tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 54 - A 2 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The child developed a high fever and a sore throat yesterday but today her condition has worsened. You observe that the patient is from a nomadic community and has not received any immunizations. During the examination, you notice that the patient is sitting upright, drooling, and has audible stridor with visible moderate chest retractions. What is the most suitable initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call and await senior ENT and anaesthetic support

      Explanation:

      The top priority when dealing with suspected epiglottitis is to assess and secure the airway. This is especially important in patients who have not been vaccinated against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB), as they are at risk for complications from this infection. Classic signs of epiglottitis include tripod positioning, drooling, stridor, and a muffled voice. It is crucial to avoid agitating patients, particularly children, during examination or procedures, as this can trigger laryngospasm and potentially lead to airway obstruction. In such cases, it is recommended to call in senior ENT and anaesthetic support to perform laryngoscopy and be prepared for intubation or tracheostomy if necessary to address any airway compromise. If the patient is in a critical condition, securing the airway through intubation becomes the top priority.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 55 - A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of a sore throat and fever. The patient denies having a cough. On examination, the patient's temperature is 37.9°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils, which are severely inflamed, and tenderness on palpation of the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally.

      What is this patient's FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a clinical scoring system that helps determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. It consists of several criteria that are assessed to assign a score.

      Firstly, if the patient has a fever higher than 38°C, they score 0 or 1 depending on the presence or absence of this symptom.

      Secondly, the presence of purulence, such as pharyngeal or tonsillar exudate, results in a score of 1.

      Thirdly, if the patient sought medical attention within 3 days or less, they score 1.

      Fourthly, if the patient has severely inflamed tonsils, they score 1.

      Lastly, if the patient does not have a cough or coryza (nasal congestion), they score 1.

      By adding up the scores from each criterion, the FeverPAIN score can help healthcare professionals determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and guide the decision on whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. In this particular case, the patient has a score of 4.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 56 - A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency Department with a severe allergic reaction caused by accidental exposure.
      Which of the following fruits is this child MOST likely to have an allergy to as well?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Banana

      Explanation:

      The connection between latex sensitivity and food allergy is commonly known as the latex-fruit syndrome. Foods that have been found to be allergenic in relation to latex are categorized into high, moderate, or low risk groups.

      High risk foods include banana, avocado, chestnut, and kiwi fruit.

      Moderate risk foods include apple, carrot, celery, melon, papaya, potato, and tomato.

      Citrus fruits and pears are considered to have a low risk of causing allergic reactions in individuals with latex sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with notable facial swelling following...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with notable facial swelling following an assault. A facial fracture is suspected due to the patient losing consciousness during the incident. As a precaution, the decision is made to send him for CT scans of the brain and facial views. The CT results confirm a zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC) fracture, but no mandible fracture is observed. Upon examination, it is observed that the patient is experiencing difficulty fully opening or closing their mouth. What is the probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporalis muscle entrapment

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the zygomatic arch that result in limited mouth opening or closing can occur when the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle becomes trapped. If this happens, it is important to seek immediate medical attention. It is worth noting that the muscles responsible for chewing (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid) are innervated by the mandibular nerve (V3).

      Further Reading:

      Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.

      Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.

      Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.

      Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.

      Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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  • Question 58 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend as he is concerned the patient has become drowsy after intermittent vomiting throughout the day. The boyfriend informs you that the patient is a type 1 diabetic. After evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and started on fluids and an insulin infusion. Due to a lack of available beds, the patient is transferred to the A&E observation ward. Several hours later, you are asked about discontinuing the insulin infusion. What criteria must be met before stopping the insulin infusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketones less than 0.3 mmol/l and venous pH over 7.3

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to continue the infusion of insulin until certain criteria are met. These criteria include ketone levels being less than 0.3 mmol/L and the pH of the blood being above 7.3 or the bicarbonate levels being above 18 mmol/L. Additionally, the patient should feel comfortable enough to eat at this point. It is crucial not to stop the intravenous insulin infusion until at least 30 minutes after administering subcutaneous short-acting insulin.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 59 - A 62-year-old man presents with depressive symptoms, mood swings, difficulty writing, memory impairment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with depressive symptoms, mood swings, difficulty writing, memory impairment, and difficulty generating ideas.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s Disease

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by various clinical features. These include memory loss, mood swings, apathy, and the presence of depressive or paranoid symptoms. Additionally, individuals with Alzheimer’s may experience Parkinsonism, a condition that affects movement, as well as a syndrome associated with the parietal lobe. Other symptoms may include difficulties with tasks such as copying 2D drawings, dressing properly, and carrying out a sequence of actions. Furthermore, individuals may struggle with copying gestures and may exhibit denial of their disorder, known as anosognosia. Topographical agnosia, or getting lost in familiar surroundings, may also be present, along with sensory inattention and astereognosis, which is the inability to identify objects when placed in the hand. Ultimately, Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by a relentless progression of personality and intellectual deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 60 - A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with a barking cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis.

      Which SINGLE statement regarding croup is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is often a prodromal illness for 1-2 days before stridor begins

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      Since croup is caused by a viral infection, antibiotics are not effective unless there is a suspicion of a secondary bacterial infection. It is important to note that sedation should not be used in a child experiencing respiratory distress. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed, although they do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not necessarily indicate the severity of the condition. Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who show worsening respiratory distress or signs of drowsiness/agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring present. Several have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing overall discomfort with joint pains and a sensation of fever. You measure his temperature, and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne fulminans

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 45-year-old man has developed drug-induced lupus after starting a new medication.
    What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has developed drug-induced lupus after starting a new medication.
      What is the PRIMARY cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydralazine

      Explanation:

      The drugs that have the highest association with the development of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. While some of the other medications mentioned in this question have also been reported to cause drug-induced lupus, the strength of their association is much weaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 63 - A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition. She has widespread areas of both hyper- and hypopigmented skin along with areas of skin atrophy and lichenification. The hypopigmented areas are mostly confined to her forearms. Over the past few years, her vision has gradually deteriorated, and she has now been registered blind.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onchocerca volvulus

      Explanation:

      Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus. It is transmitted through the bites of infected blackflies of Simulium species, which carry immature larval forms of the parasite from human to human.

      In the human body, the larvae form nodules in the subcutaneous tissue, where they mature to adult worms. After mating, the female adult worm can release up to 1000 microfilariae a day.

      Onchocerciasis is currently endemic in 30 African countries, Yemen, and a few isolated regions of South America. Approximately 37 million people worldwide are currently infected.

      Symptoms start to occur around a year after the patient is infected. The earliest symptom is usually an intensely itchy rash. Various skin manifestations occur, including scattered, red, pruritic papules (acute papular onchodermatitis), larger, chronic, hyperpigmented papules (chronic papular onchodermatitis), lichenified, oedematous, hyperpigmented papules and plaques (lichenified onchodermatitis), areas of skin atrophy with loss of elasticity (‘Lizard skin’), and depigmented areas with a ‘leopard skin appearance, usually on shins.

      Ocular involvement provides the common name associated with onchocerciasis, river blindness, and it can involve any part of the eye. Almost a million people worldwide have at least a partial degree of vision loss caused by onchocerciasis. Initially, there may be intense watering, foreign body sensation, and photophobia. This can progress to conjunctivitis, iridocyclitis, and chorioretinitis. Secondary glaucoma and optic atrophy may also occur.

      In a number of countries, onchocerciasis has been controlled through spraying of blackfly breeding sites with insecticide. The drug ivermectin is the preferred treatment for onchocerciasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 64 - A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 65 - A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of worsening left sided otalgia and high temperature. During examination, a bulging red tympanic membrane is observed and acute otitis media is diagnosed.

      What is the most probable causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most probable causative organism in this case is Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of acute otitis media, especially in young children. It is known to cause infection in the middle ear, leading to symptoms such as ear pain (otalgia), fever, and a red, bulging tympanic membrane. Other organisms such as Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause ear infections, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit in this particular case.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 66 - A 3-week-old girl presents with vomiting, poor weight gain, and decreased muscle tone....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old girl presents with vomiting, poor weight gain, and decreased muscle tone. She is hypotensive and has a fast heart rate. During the examination, you notice that she has enlarged labia and increased pigmentation. Blood tests show high potassium, low sodium, and elevated levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone. A venous blood gas reveals the presence of metabolic acidosis, and her blood glucose level is slightly low. Intravenous fluids have already been started.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone and IV dextrose

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of inherited disorders that are caused by autosomal recessive genes. The majority of affected patients, over 90%, have a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This enzyme is encoded by the 21-hydroxylase gene, which is located on chromosome 6p21 within the HLA histocompatibility complex. The second most common cause of CAH is a deficiency of the enzyme 11-beta-hydroxylase. The condition is rare, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 500 births in the UK. It is more prevalent in the offspring of consanguineous marriages.

      The deficiency of 21-hydroxylase leads to a deficiency of cortisol and/or aldosterone, as well as an excess of precursor steroids. As a result, there is an increased secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary, leading to adrenocortical hyperplasia.

      The severity of CAH varies depending on the degree of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Female infants often exhibit ambiguous genitalia, such as clitoral hypertrophy and labial fusion. Male infants may have an enlarged scrotum and/or scrotal pigmentation. Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth, occurs in 10% of cases.

      Boys with CAH often experience a salt-losing adrenal crisis at around 1-3 weeks of age. This crisis is characterized by symptoms such as vomiting, weight loss, floppiness, and circulatory collapse.

      The diagnosis of CAH can be made by detecting markedly elevated levels of the metabolic precursor 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Neonatal screening is possible, primarily through the identification of persistently elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels.

      In infants presenting with a salt-losing crisis, the following biochemical abnormalities are observed: hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia.

      Boys experiencing a salt-losing crisis will require fluid resuscitation, intravenous dextrose, and intravenous hydrocortisone.

      Affected females will require corrective surgery for their external genitalia. However, they have an intact uterus and ovaries and are capable of having children.

      The long-term management of both sexes involves lifelong replacement of hydrocortisone (to suppress ACTH levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 67 - A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain that has been getting worse over the past few days. They have been experiencing chills today and their temperature is elevated at 38°C.
      Which of the following is a warning sign that suggests an infectious origin for their back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of immunosuppressant drugs

      Explanation:

      Infectious factors that can lead to back pain consist of discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis, and spinal epidural abscess. There are certain warning signs, known as red flags, that indicate the presence of an infectious cause for back pain. These red flags include experiencing a fever, having tuberculosis, being diabetic, having recently had a bacterial infection such as a urinary tract infection, engaging in intravenous drug use, and having a weakened immune system due to conditions like HIV or the use of immunosuppressant drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 68 - A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new small lumps around her anus and genitalia. During examination, two clusters of small lumps are observed. The lumps range in size from 1 to 5 mm, with two being pedunculated. They have a firm texture and exhibit colors ranging from grey to brown.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verruca acuminata

      Explanation:

      Verruca acuminata, also known as Condylomata acuminata, are genital warts. These warts are typically transmitted through sexual activity and are primarily caused by different subtypes of the human papillomavirus (HPV). They usually appear in clusters, can be pedunculated, and vary in size between 1-5 mm. Immunosuppression increases the risk, and some studies suggest that 25% of affected patients will acquire a second sexually transmitted infection.

      Condylomata lata, on the other hand, are warty-plaque like lesions found on the genitals and perianal area during secondary syphilis.

      Verruca vulgaris, commonly known as common warts, present as raised warts with a roughened surface. They are most frequently observed on the hands.

      Verruca planae, which are smooth and flattened flesh-colored warts, can occur in large numbers. They are commonly seen on the face, hands, neck, wrists, and knees.

      Lastly, Verruca plantaris, also known as plantar warts or verrucas, manifest as hard and painful lumps, often with black specks in the center. These warts are typically found only on pressure points on the soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches and occasional fevers. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of malaria. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment, but his condition worsens, leading to the development of jaundice, renal failure, and haemoglobinuria.

      What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a contagious illness that is spread by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. It is a parasitic infection caused by the Plasmodium genus. There are five species of Plasmodium that are known to cause disease in humans: Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.

      The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a recurring pattern of symptoms. It begins with a cold phase, during which the patient experiences intense chills. This is followed by a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot. Finally, there is a sweating stage, during which the fever subsides and the patient sweats profusely. Upon examination, the patient may exhibit signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen, but there is no evidence of swollen lymph nodes.

      If a patient develops haemoglobinuria (the presence of hemoglobin in the urine) and renal failure after treatment, it may indicate a condition called blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. In this condition, an autoimmune reaction occurs between the parasite and quinine, leading to the destruction of red blood cells, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. Blackwater fever can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 70 - A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by two members...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by two members of the public after collapsing in a nearby park. The patient appears confused, looking around the room but not responding to questions or commands. Verbal output is limited to grunting and coughing. Observations are taken and are shown below:

      Blood pressure 148/76 mmHg
      Pulse 90 bpm
      Respirations 18 bpm
      Temperature 36.8ºC
      Oxygen Saturations 98% on air
      Capillary glucose 1.2 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give glucagon 1 mg via intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      The use of glucose infusion is not recommended due to its hypertonic nature, which can potentially increase the risk of extravasation injury.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

      Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 71 - You are participating in a mountain expedition and have been airlifted to camp...

    Incorrect

    • You are participating in a mountain expedition and have been airlifted to camp at an elevation of 2750m. As part of your responsibilities, you need to identify individuals displaying indications of acute mountain sickness (AMS). At what point would you anticipate the emergence of signs and symptoms of AMS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 6-12 hours of being at altitude

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS) typically appear within 6-12 hours of reaching an altitude above 2500 meters. On the other hand, the onset of high altitude cerebral edema (HACE) and high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) usually occurs after 2-4 days of being at high altitude.

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 72 - A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. His diabetes is typically controlled with metformin 500 mg twice daily. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his primary care physician, and his family reports that he has been experiencing excessive thirst. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and 1+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:

      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticoagulation should be given

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.

      The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
      – Normalize the osmolality
      – Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      – Normalize blood glucose levels

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 73 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the past three days. She has a history of seasonal allergies during the spring months, which have been more severe than usual in recent weeks. Upon listening to her chest, you can hear scattered polyphonic wheezes. Her peak flow at the time of presentation is 280 L/min, and her personal best peak flow is 550 L/min.
      What classification would you assign to this asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing an acute episode of asthma. His initial peak flow measurement is 46% of his best, indicating a severe exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.

      Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) between 50-75% of the individual’s best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma in this case.

      Acute severe asthma is identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR between 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is indicated by any one of the following: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) below 8 kPa, normal arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) between 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.

      Near-fatal asthma is characterized by elevated PaCO2 levels and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with increased inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 74 - A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
      Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 75 - An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient has had a fever with temperatures ranging between 37.5 and 38.1ºC and a runny nose for a few days before developing a barking cough. During examination, you observe stridor at rest and moderate sternal recession (retractions). The child appears lethargic and does not consistently respond to verbal stimuli. Oxygen saturation levels are 94% on air, and there is marked bilateral decreased air entry upon auscultation of the chest. The child's mother inquires if this could be croup.

      Your consultant requests you to calculate the Westley score for this child. What is the correct score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 76 - A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted infection. Following her assessment, she is diagnosed with gonorrhoea.

      Which of the following is the most common presenting clinical feature of gonorrhoea in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethritis

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that is shaped like two spheres and stains pink when tested. It is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important thing to note is that the gonococcal pili, which are hair-like structures on the bacteria, can change their appearance. This means that even if someone has recovered from a previous infection, they can still be reinfected due to the bacteria’s ability to change.

      In men, the clinical signs of gonorrhoea include inflammation of the urethra, which is seen in approximately 80% of cases. Around 50% of men experience pain or discomfort during urination, and a mucopurulent discharge may also be present. Rectal infection is possible, although it is usually asymptomatic. In some cases, it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is also possible but typically does not cause any noticeable symptoms.

      Women with gonorrhoea may experience a vaginal discharge, which is seen in about 50% of cases. Lower abdominal pain is reported in approximately 25% of women, and dysuria, or painful urination, is seen in 10-15% of cases. Pelvic or lower abdominal tenderness is less common, occurring in less than 5% of women. Additionally, women may have an endocervical discharge and/or bleeding. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis is also possible in women, but it is typically asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 77 - A 4-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 78 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness in his legs over the past 4 days. The symptoms seem to be spreading upwards towards his thighs, and he has also noticed some weakness in his hands. He mentions that he had a bad bout of diarrhea about three weeks ago, but otherwise, he has been healthy. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). GBS typically presents with initial symptoms of sensory changes or pain, accompanied by muscle weakness in the hands and/or feet. This weakness often spreads to the arms and upper body, affecting both sides. During the acute phase, GBS can be life-threatening, with around 15% of patients experiencing respiratory muscle weakness and requiring mechanical ventilation.

      The exact cause of GBS is unknown, but it is believed to involve an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the peripheral nerves. In about 75% of cases, there is a preceding infection, commonly affecting the gastrointestinal or respiratory tracts.

      In this particular case, the most likely underlying cause is Campylobacter jejuni, a gastrointestinal pathogen. This is supported by the recent history of a severe diarrheal illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 79 - A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating. You suspect that she is experiencing a panic attack. She was seen by a resident physician shortly before your assessment, and an arterial blood gas was taken.
      What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by hyperventilation secondary to anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.

      Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging tests show that she has a Le Fort III fracture.
      What is the most accurate description of the injury pattern seen in a Le Fort III fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse fracture of the midface

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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  • Question 81 - A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department by her husband following a fall. The patient seems unsure about how the fall occurred. The patient's husband takes you aside to express his growing concern about the patient's memory and overall functioning in the past year. He has previously suggested visiting the doctor about it, but the patient has consistently refused, claiming to be perfectly fine. The patient's husband is worried that the patient might be suffering from dementia. What is the leading cause of dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Explanation:

      Dementia is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive abilities, such as memory, thinking, and reasoning, that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning. There are several different causes of dementia, but the leading cause is Alzheimer’s disease. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60-80% of cases.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 82 - You are evaluating a 7-year-old girl who recently immigrated from South East Asia....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 7-year-old girl who recently immigrated from South East Asia. Her parents have expressed concerns about her lack of energy and pale appearance. A complete blood count was conducted, and the results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 4.4 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-14 g/dl)
      - Red blood cells (RBC): 2.6 x 1012/l (normal range: 4-5 x 1012/l)
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 59 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      - Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH): 21 pg (normal range: 25-35 pg)
      - Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC): 27 g/dl (normal range: 30-37 g/dl)
      - Platelets: 466 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 7.4 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)

      The peripheral blood smear reveals evidence of anisocytosis and pencil cells. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The complete blood count findings indicate a severe case of iron deficiency anemia. The patient’s red blood cells are significantly reduced in number, and there is a noticeable hypochromic microcytic anemia. When examining the peripheral blood smear, variations in shape (poikilocytosis) and size (anisocytosis) can be observed, which are typical of iron deficiency anemia. Pencil cells are commonly seen in this condition. Additionally, it is common for iron deficiency anemia to be accompanied by thrombocytosis, an increase in platelet count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 83 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after she accidentally spilled a cup of hot tea on her legs and feet. Her upper body is unaffected, but she is crying in agony. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'intense pain'.
      Which pain relief method is most suitable to be used as a temporary measure until more effective pain relief can be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled entonox

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 84 - A 68-year-old individual reports feeling unwell after having their dislocated shoulder reduced while...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old individual reports feeling unwell after having their dislocated shoulder reduced while under sedation. You decide to prescribe ondansetron. What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron is a medication that works by blocking serotonin receptors in the body. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV), which can occur after procedures done under sedation or anesthesia.

      Further Reading:

      postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.

      To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.

      Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 85 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father with a high temperature and pain in her ear. During the examination, you observe that the mastoid area is red and there is a soft, painful lump in the same spot. You diagnose her with acute mastoiditis, start her on intravenous antibiotics, and refer her to the ENT team on duty.
      Which section of the temporal bone is affected in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Petrous part

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis occurs when a suppurative infection spreads from otitis media, affecting the middle ear, to the mastoid antrum. This infection causes inflammation in the mastoid and surrounding tissues, potentially leading to damage to the bone.

      The mastoid antrum, also known as the tympanic antrum, is an air space located in the petrous part of the temporal bone. It connects to the mastoid cells at the back and the epitympanic recess through the aditus to the mastoid antrum.

      The mastoid cells come in different types, varying in number and size. There are cellular cells with thin septa, diploeic cells that are marrow spaces with few air cells, and acellular cells that are neither cells nor marrow spaces.

      These air spaces serve various functions, including acting as sound receptors, providing voice resonance, offering acoustic insulation and dissipation, protecting against physical damage, and reducing the weight of the cranium.

      Overall, mastoiditis occurs when an infection from otitis media spreads to the mastoid antrum, causing inflammation and potential damage to the surrounding tissues and bone. The mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells within the temporal bone play important roles in sound reception, voice resonance, protection, and reducing cranial mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 86 - A 28 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female comes to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat that has been bothering her for the past 4 days. She denies having any cough or runny nose. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 37.7°C, blood pressure at 120/68 mmHg, and pulse rate at 88 bpm. Erythema is observed in the oropharynx and tonsils. The neck is nontender and no palpable masses are found.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with self care advice

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a CENTOR score of 0, 1, or 2 should be given advice on self-care and safety measures. In this case, the patient has a CENTOR score of 1/4 and a FeverPAIN score of 1, indicating that antibiotics are not necessary. The patient should be advised to drink enough fluids, use over-the-counter pain relievers like ibuprofen or paracetamol, try salt water gargling or medicated lozenges, and avoid hot drinks as they can worsen the pain. It is important to inform the patient that if they experience difficulty swallowing, develop a fever above 38ºC, or if their symptoms do not improve after 3 days, they should seek reassessment.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 87 - A 62 year old male comes to the emergency department with a chief...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old male comes to the emergency department with a chief complaint of experiencing dizziness upon movement. The patient states that the symptoms began today when he got up from bed. He describes the dizzy spells as a sensation of the room spinning and they typically last for around 30 seconds. The patient also mentions feeling nauseous during these episodes. There are no reported issues with hearing loss or tinnitus.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

      Explanation:

      BPPV is a condition where dizziness and vertigo occur suddenly when the position of the head is changed. This is a common symptom of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, which is characterized by episodes of vertigo triggered by head movements.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 88 - A 35-year-old woman from East Africa presents with haematuria. Urine specimens are sent,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from East Africa presents with haematuria. Urine specimens are sent, and a diagnosis of schistosomiasis is made.

      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a tropical disease caused by parasitic trematodes (flukes) of the Schistosoma type. The transmission of this disease occurs when water becomes contaminated with faeces or urine containing eggs, and a specific freshwater snail serves as the intermediate host. Human contact with water inhabited by the intermediate host snail is necessary for transmission to occur.

      There are five species of Schistosoma that can cause human disease: S. japonicum, S. mansoni, S. haematobium, S. intercalatum, and S. mekongi. Among these, S. japonicum and S. mansoni are the most significant causes of intestinal schistosomiasis, while S. haematobium is the primary cause of urogenital schistosomiasis.

      Urogenital schistosomiasis occurs when adult worms migrate from their initial site in the liver to the vesical plexus. The presence of blood in the urine, known as haematuria, is a characteristic sign of urogenital schistosomiasis. In women, this condition may manifest with genital and vaginal lesions, as well as dyspareunia. pathology in the seminal vesicles and prostate. Advanced cases of urogenital schistosomiasis can result in fibrosis of the ureter and bladder, as well as kidney damage. Complications such as bladder cancer and infertility are also recognized in association with this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 89 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department following a motor...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. Which system should be utilized to evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Canadian C-spine rules

      Explanation:

      When a 35-year-old female comes to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision, it is important to assess the potential for cervical spine injury. To do this, the Canadian C-spine rules should be utilized. These rules provide a systematic approach to determine whether imaging, such as X-rays, is necessary to evaluate the cervical spine. The Canadian C-spine rules take into account various factors such as the patient’s age, mechanism of injury, and presence of certain symptoms or physical findings. By following these rules, healthcare professionals can effectively evaluate the potential for cervical spine injury and determine the appropriate course of action for further assessment and management.

      Further Reading:

      When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.

      If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.

      NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.

      Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 90 - A 45-year-old woman with no permanent address sustains a head injury after falling....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no permanent address sustains a head injury after falling. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which medication should be urgently administered to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 91 - A 45-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. Her chest X-ray in the emergency room reveals evidence of a traumatic aortic injury.
      Which of the following fractures are most indicative of this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd ribs

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.

      The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.

      Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.

      A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.

      Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 92 - A 35-year-old man with a known history of alcohol dependency (consuming over 1L...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a known history of alcohol dependency (consuming over 1L of whisky daily) and liver cirrhosis comes to the hospital with worsening ascites and abdominal pain. He is experiencing encephalopathy and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea today. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 116, blood pressure of 100/68, and a temperature of 38.9oC. Upon examination, he has significant ascites and generalized abdominal tenderness.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.

      There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.

      To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 93 - A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of coughing or cold symptoms. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt. What is her FeverPAIN Score for assessing her sore throat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.

      The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.

      Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
      – Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
      – Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
      – Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 94 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' Her heart rate is 180 bpm, and her rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of adenosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.

      When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.

      One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.

      There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.

      It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 95 - A 60-year-old woman presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. Upon examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. Upon examination of her cardiovascular system, you find a collapsing pulse. Her apex beat is hyperkinetic and displaced to the side. During auscultation, you detect an early diastolic murmur that is most pronounced when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve fails to close tightly, resulting in the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. This valvular lesion presents with various clinical symptoms and signs.

      The clinical symptoms of aortic regurgitation include exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. These symptoms are experienced by patients during physical activity, while lying flat, and during episodes of sudden nighttime breathlessness, respectively.

      On the other hand, the clinical signs of aortic regurgitation can be observed during physical examination. These signs include a collapsing pulse, widened pulse pressure, hyperkinetic laterally displaced apex beat, and a thrill in the aortic area. Additionally, an early diastolic murmur can be heard, which is loudest at the lower left sternal edge when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.

      Aortic regurgitation is also associated with several eponymous signs, which are named after the physicians who first described them. These signs include Corrigan’s sign, which is characterized by visible and forceful neck pulsation. De Musset’s sign refers to head nodding in time with the heartbeat. Quincke’s sign is the observation of visible nail bed capillary pulsation. Duroziez’s sign is the presence of a diastolic murmur heard proximal to femoral artery compression. Traube’s sign is the perception of a pistol shot sound over the femoral arteries. The Lighthouse sign is the blanching and flushing of the forehead. Becker’s sign is the pulsation seen in retinal vessels. Rosenbach’s sign is the presence of a pulsatile liver. Lastly, Muller’s sign refers to pulsations of the uvula.

      In summary, aortic regurgitation is a valvular lesion that leads to the incomplete closure of the aortic valve. It manifests with various clinical symptoms, signs, and eponymous findings, which can be identified through careful examination and observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 96 - A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics after being pulled from a lake. The patient initially had a core temperature of 29.2ºC. CPR is underway. The patient's core temperature is rechecked after warming measures are introduced and the core temperature has increased to 32.5ºC. What changes, if any, would you make to administration of adrenaline during CPR in a patient with a core temperature of 32.5ºC compared to someone with a normal core temperature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interval between doses doubled

      Explanation:

      When performing CPR on patients with a core temperature of 30-35°C, it is recommended to double the interval between IV drug doses compared to what is used for normothermic patients. However, if the core temperature is above 35°C, standard drug protocols should be followed.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 97 - A 4-year-old boy has been seen by one of your colleagues a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has been seen by one of your colleagues a few days earlier due to a persistent cough and fever that he has had for the past 10 days. The cough is a harsh, hacking cough and tends to occur in short bursts. Your colleague suspected a diagnosis of whooping cough and organized for a nasopharyngeal swab to be sent for culture.

      You review the child today with his parents having received notification from the lab that the child has a confirmed diagnosis of whooping cough. He lives with his parents and has a younger sister who is 2 years old. The mother is currently 36 weeks pregnant. The sister is up-to-date with all of her vaccinations as per the current US vaccination schedule.

      Which members of the household should receive chemoprophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mother, father, and brother

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is highly contagious and spreads to about 90% of close household contacts. Public Health England (PHE) has identified two priority groups for managing whooping cough contacts. Group 1 includes infants under one year who have received less than three doses of the pertussis vaccine and are at risk of severe infection. Group 2 includes pregnant women at 32 weeks or more, healthcare workers dealing with infants and pregnant women, individuals working with unvaccinated infants under 4 months old, and individuals living with unvaccinated infants under 4 months old.

      According to current guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis with a macrolide antibiotic like erythromycin should only be given to close contacts if the following criteria are met: the index case has had symptoms within the past 21 days and there is a close contact in one of the priority groups. If both criteria are met, all contacts, regardless of age and vaccination status, should be offered chemoprophylaxis. In this case, the mother falls into group 2, so the recommended action is to provide chemoprophylaxis to all household contacts, including the mother, father, and brother. Additionally, those who receive chemoprophylaxis should also consider immunization or a booster dose based on their current vaccination status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 98 - You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea and pain in her lower extremities.
      Which ONE statement about sickle-cell disease is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      HbAS is known as Sickle cell trait, while HbSS is the genotype for Sickle-cell disease. Sickle-shaped red blood cells have a shorter lifespan of 10-20 days compared to the normal red blood cells that live for 90-120 days. Cholelithiasis, a complication of sickle-cell disease, occurs due to excessive bilirubin production caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. The inheritance pattern of sickle-cell disease is autosomal recessive. The disease is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin, resulting in the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position. Individuals with one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle gene have the genotype HbAS, which is commonly referred to as Sickle Cell trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 99 - Your consultant requests you to arrange a teaching session on secondary causes of...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant requests you to arrange a teaching session on secondary causes of hypertension. Which of the subsequent electrolyte abnormalities would be in line with a diagnosis of Conn's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with primary hyperaldosteronism typically present with hypertension and hypokalemia. This is due to the fact that aldosterone encourages the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium, leading to an imbalance in these electrolytes. Additionally, hypernatremia, or high levels of sodium in the blood, is often observed in these patients.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 100 - A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 101 - A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion and mild fever. It is suspected that the patient has a urinary tract infection. The patient's family member informs you that the patient takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation but is unsure if they have taken it correctly due to confusion. An INR test is conducted and the result comes back as 8.2.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give vitamin K 1 mg by mouth

      Explanation:

      When the INR (International Normalized Ratio) is above 8 but there is no sign of bleeding, the usual approach is to stop administering warfarin and instead provide oral vitamin K. If the INR is below 8 and there is no evidence of bleeding, it is appropriate to discontinue warfarin. However, if there is evidence of bleeding or the INR exceeds 8, reversal agents are administered. In cases where the INR is greater than 8 without any bleeding, oral vitamin K is typically prescribed at a dosage of 1-5 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Management of High INR with Warfarin

      Major Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 5 mg.
      – Administer 25-50 u/kg four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
      – If prothrombin complex concentrate is not available, consider using fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
      – Seek medical attention promptly.

      INR > 8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR > 8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer oral vitamin K 1-5 mg using the intravenous preparation orally.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if any symptoms or concerns arise.

      INR 5.0-8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR 5.0-8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin.
      – Reduce subsequent maintenance dose.
      – Monitor INR closely and seek medical advice if any concerns arise.

      Note: In cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered as it is faster acting than fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 102 - A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on her history of chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of 38 ml/minute, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics. However, there are no culture or sensitivity results available. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate choice in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
      – Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
      – Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.

      For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 103 - A 42-year-old carpenter presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old carpenter presents with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left wrist. He recently started taking bendroflumethiazide to help with his ankle swelling. He is overweight with a BMI of 36 kg/m2 and admits to drinking a few beers most nights. He describes the pain as unbearable and it was at its worst in the first 8-10 hours. On examination, his left wrist is swollen, hot, and extremely tender. The skin over the area is red.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a form of arthritis that causes a swollen, tender, red, and hot joint. Initially, it was believed to primarily affect wealthy individuals due to dietary connections, but it is now becoming more prevalent and is estimated to impact around 1-2% of the Western population. This increase may be attributed to longer lifespans and changes in our eating habits. Additionally, there is a positive correlation between the rising rates of metabolic disease and gout.

      While gout commonly affects the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the big toe (approximately 50% of cases), it can also impact other joints such as the fingers, wrists, knees, and ankles. The pain experienced during an episode is often excruciating, and these episodes typically last about a week. Approximately half of the patients experience a recurrence within a year.

      Hyperuricemia is the underlying cause of gout. Uric acid, a byproduct of purine metabolism, is typically eliminated through the kidneys. However, in about 90% of cases, hyperuricemia occurs due to the under-excretion of urate, while the remaining 10% is caused by overproduction. Elevated urate levels increase the likelihood of crystal formation. Measuring uric acid levels in the blood can be misleading, as some individuals with high levels do not develop gout, and levels can be normal during an attack. The crystallization process is complex and more likely to occur in cooler temperatures (which is why the feet are often affected, and symptoms worsen at night), during acidosis, and when there are rapid fluctuations in uric acid levels.

      Diagnosing gout is primarily based on clinical evaluation. If there is a rapid onset of severe pain, swelling, and tenderness that reaches its peak within 6-12 hours, accompanied by redness, it strongly suggests crystal inflammation. The presence of monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid or tophi confirms the diagnosis. When these crystals are examined under polarized light, they exhibit negative birefringence. Since gout symptoms can be mistaken for septic arthritis, if there is uncertainty in the diagnosis and the joint has been aspirated, it should also be sent for gram-staining.

      Tophi are painless, hard lumps that develop when hyperuricemia persists for an extended period. They often appear on the elbows and ears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 104 - A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
      What dose of rectal diazepam is recommended for the treatment of the convulsing child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of rectal diazepam for treating a child experiencing convulsions is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 105 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began slightly over 48 hours after a dental extraction. The bleeding is excessive, but her vital signs are currently stable.
      What type of dental hemorrhage is present in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      This patient is currently experiencing a secondary haemorrhage after undergoing a dental extraction. There are three different types of haemorrhage that can occur following a dental extraction. The first type is immediate haemorrhage, which happens during the extraction itself. The second type is reactionary haemorrhage, which typically occurs 2-3 hours after the extraction when the vasoconstrictor effects of the local anaesthetic wear off. Lastly, there is secondary haemorrhage, which usually happens at around 48-72 hours after the extraction and is a result of the clot becoming infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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  • Question 106 - You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open

      Explanation:

      Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.

      Further Reading:

      An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.

      To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.

      Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 107 - A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while crossing the street. The patient is breathing rapidly and clinical examination shows a flail segment. What is the most suitable initial intervention to relieve respiratory distress?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive pressure ventilation

      Explanation:

      To relieve the patient’s respiratory distress, the most suitable initial intervention would be positive pressure ventilation. This involves providing mechanical assistance to the patient’s breathing by delivering air or oxygen under pressure through a mask or endotracheal tube. This helps to improve oxygenation and ventilation, ensuring that the patient’s lungs are adequately supplied with oxygen and carbon dioxide is effectively removed. Positive pressure ventilation can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and alleviate the respiratory distress caused by the flail segment.

      Further Reading:

      Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.

      The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.

      In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.

      Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 108 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to assess the patient and initiate her treatment.
      What condition will she develop if she goes untreated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff psychosis

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional features may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, which typically affects the legs.

      The condition is caused by capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These changes can be visualized using MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      Patients suspected of having Wernicke’s encephalopathy should receive parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Oral thiamine should be administered after the parenteral therapy.

      It is important to note that in patients with chronic thiamine deficiency, the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine can trigger the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 109 - A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with central chest pain that has been intermittent for the past few weeks. She reports that it tends to occur when she is climbing stairs or walking uphill but subsides quickly when she rests. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is managed with metformin, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), for which she takes lansoprazole. On examination, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stable angina

      Explanation:

      Stable angina is characterized by chest pain in the center of the chest that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. The pain may spread to the jaw or left arm and can be relieved by resting for a few minutes. Typically, the pain is brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.

      On the other hand, unstable angina is defined by the presence of one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. In unstable angina, the ECG may appear normal or show T wave / ST segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are usually normal.

      Prinzmetal angina is a rare form of angina that typically occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. These attacks can be severe and happen in clusters. It is caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, and patients with this condition often have normal coronary arteries.

      It is important to note that gastro-esophageal reflux (GORD) is not relevant to this question and is included in the patient’s history to distract the candidate. Typical symptoms of GORD include heartburn and acid regurgitation, and it can also present with non-cardiac chest pain, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing.

      Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection in the submandibular area. It most commonly occurs due to an infection in the floor of the mouth that spreads into the submandibular space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 110 - A 25-year-old bartender presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old bartender presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling unwell for the past week. He has been experiencing muscle aches, headaches, and fatigue. This morning, he woke up with a severely sore throat and noticed the presence of pus in the back of his throat. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.4ºC and both tonsils are covered in white exudate. Additionally, he has tender enlarged cervical lymph nodes and tenderness in the left and right upper quadrants of his abdomen, with a palpable liver edge.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing early symptoms such as tiredness, swollen tonsils with discharge, enlarged lymph nodes, and an enlarged liver. Additionally, they fall within the typical age group for developing glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis). Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is responsible for the majority of glandular fever cases.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 111 - You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from service after being discovered to be under the influence of drugs and alcohol during a training exercise. He completed three tours of duty in Iraq and witnessed the death of a close comrade during his final deployment. Mark acknowledges experiencing frequent flashbacks and nightmares and often feels on edge. His spouse has accused him of being emotionally distant and lacking feelings, resulting in their separation. Lately, he has been heavily relying on alcohol as a coping mechanism.
      What is the SINGLE MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) develops after experiencing an extremely threatening or catastrophic event that would cause distress in almost anyone. It is important to note that PTSD does not develop from everyday upsetting situations like divorce, job loss, or failing an exam.

      The most common symptom of PTSD is re-experiencing the traumatic event involuntarily and vividly. This can manifest as flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive distressing images or sensations, and physical symptoms such as pain, sweating, nausea, or trembling. Other notable features of PTSD include avoidance, rumination, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, irritability, and insomnia.

      It is common for individuals with PTSD to also experience other mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, phobias, self-harming behaviors, and substance abuse.

      The recommended treatments for PTSD are Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) and Trauma-focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT). These treatments should be offered to individuals of all ages, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. Typically, 8-12 sessions are recommended, but more may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 112 - A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding his head tilted to the left-hand side. During the examination of his eye movements, it is observed that both eyes can look normally to the right, but on looking to the left, his left eye cannot turn outwards past the midline. The right eye is unaffected when looking to the left.
      Which muscle is the MOST likely to be involved in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral rectus

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a condition called right-sided abducens nerve palsy, which means that their sixth cranial nerve is paralyzed. As a result, the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye outward, is also paralyzed. This means that the patient’s right eye is unable to turn outward. This can lead to a condition called convergent strabismus, where the eyes are not aligned properly, and diplopia, which is double vision. To compensate for the double vision, patients often tilt their head towards the side of the paralyzed muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 113 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of a 45-year-old male who has suffered a head injury. A fellow healthcare provider informs you that the patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad of symptoms. What is the most accurate description of Cushing's triad?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia and bradypnoea

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s triad is a combination of widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and reduced respirations. It is a physiological response of the nervous system to acute increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). This response, known as the Cushing reflex, can cause the symptoms of Cushing’s triad. These symptoms include an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure, a slower heart rate, and irregular or reduced breathing. Additionally, raised ICP can also lead to other symptoms such as headache, papilloedema, and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 114 - A suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) event has resulted in a...

    Incorrect

    • A suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) event has resulted in a significant number of casualties. The primary clinical manifestations observed include restlessness, nausea and diarrhea, constricted airways, excessive production of saliva, profuse sweating, loss of muscle control, and seizures. Which of the following agents is the most probable cause for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VX gas

      Explanation:

      The symptoms observed in the casualties of this CBRN event strongly indicate exposure to a nerve agent. Among the options provided, VX gas is the only nerve agent listed, making it the most likely culprit.

      Nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a highly toxic group of chemical warfare agents that were developed just before and during World War II. The initial compounds in this category, known as the G agents, were discovered and synthesized by German scientists. They include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD). In the 1950s, the V agents, which are approximately 10 times more poisonous than Sarin, were synthesized. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).

      One of the most well-known incidents involving a nerve agent was the Tokyo subway sarin attack in March 1995. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour, resulting in over 5,000 people seeking medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.

      Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This inhibition leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

      Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can enter the body through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. In vapor form, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of the agent is absorbed, it can cause local effects followed by systemic effects throughout the body.

      The clinical symptoms observed after exposure to nerve agents are a result of the combined effects on the muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous systems. Muscarinic effects, often remembered using the acronym DUMBBELS, include diarrhea, urination, miosis (constriction of the pupils), bronchorrhea (excessive mucus production in the airways), bronchospasm (narrowing of the airways), emesis (vomiting), lacrimation (excessive tearing), and salivation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
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  • Question 115 - A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. She has recently developed a rash of small red spots on her legs that do not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      In a child with a non-blanching rash, it is important to consider the possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. This is especially true if the child appears unwell, has purpura (lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter), a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 116 - A 60-year-old man presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. You examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. You examine his cardiovascular system and discover a slow-rising, low-volume pulse. His apex beat is sustained, and you can auscultate an ejection systolic murmur that is loudest in the aortic area that radiates to the carotids.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis is a common condition where the valve in the heart becomes narrowed due to the progressive calcification that occurs with age. This typically occurs around the age of 70. Other causes of aortic stenosis include calcification of a congenital bicuspid aortic valve and rheumatic fever.

      The symptoms of aortic stenosis can vary but commonly include difficulty breathing during physical activity, fainting, dizziness, chest pain (angina), and in severe cases, sudden death. However, it is also possible for aortic stenosis to be asymptomatic, meaning that there are no noticeable symptoms.

      When examining a patient with aortic stenosis, there are several signs that may be present. These include a slow-rising and low-volume pulse, a narrow pulse pressure, a sustained apex beat, a thrill (a vibrating sensation) in the area of the aorta, and an ejection click if the valve is pliable. Additionally, there is typically an ejection systolic murmur, which is a specific type of heart murmur, that can be heard loudest in the aortic area (located at the right sternal edge, 2nd intercostal space) and may radiate to the carotid arteries.

      It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from aortic sclerosis, which is a degeneration of the aortic valve but does not cause obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. Aortic sclerosis can be distinguished by the presence of a normal pulse character and the absence of radiation of the murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 117 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Visual field testing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Visual field testing shows that she has a left-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopias occur when there are lesions in the optic radiation. The optic tract passes through the posterolateral angle of the optic chiasm, running alongside the cerebral peduncle and inside the uncus of the temporal lobe. Eventually, it reaches the lateral geniculate body (LGN) in the thalamus. Acting as a relay center, the LGN sends axons through the optic radiation to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The upper optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the lower half of the visual field) and travels through the parietal lobe. On the other hand, the lower optic radiation carries fibers from the inferior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the upper half of the visual field) and travels through the temporal lobe. Consequently, lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopias, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopias. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects resulting from lesions at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 118 - You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a...

    Incorrect

    • You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall at her assisted living facility. You can see from her notes that she has mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease. While writing up her drug chart, you note that there are some medications you are not familiar with.
      Which ONE of the following medications can be used as a first-line drug in the management of mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, one of the recommended treatments for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is the use of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. These inhibitors include Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine, and Rivastigmine. They work by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.

      On the other hand, Memantine is a different type of medication that acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors. It is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or for those with severe Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 119 - A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly after taking the medication, she experiences an acute dystonic reaction.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this reaction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced acute dystonic reactions are frequently seen in the Emergency Department. These reactions occur in approximately 0.5% to 1% of patients who have been administered metoclopramide or prochlorperazine. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has proven to be effective in treating drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and acute dystonia. In emergency situations, a dose of 10 mg IV of procyclidine can be administered to promptly treat acute drug-induced dystonic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 120 - A 62 year old presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden hearing loss. During the examination, tuning fork tests are performed. Weber's test lateralizes to the left side and Rinne's testing is positive for both ears.

      This assessment supports which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left sided sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      When performing Weber’s test, if the sound lateralizes to the unaffected side, it suggests sensorineural hearing loss. If the sound lateralizes to the right, it could mean that there is sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear or conductive hearing loss in the right ear. A positive Rinne test result indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is normal or seen in sensorineural hearing loss. On the other hand, a negative Rinne test result suggests that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, which is typically seen in conductive hearing loss. Therefore, if there is conductive hearing loss in the left ear, a negative Rinne test result would indicate sensorineural loss on the left side.

      Further Reading:

      Hearing loss is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions affecting different parts of the ear and nervous system. The outer ear is the part of the ear outside the eardrum, while the middle ear is located between the eardrum and the cochlea. The inner ear is within the bony labyrinth and consists of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea. The vestibulocochlear nerve connects the inner ear to the brain.

      Hearing loss can be classified based on severity, onset, and type. Severity is determined by the quietest sound that can be heard, measured in decibels. It can range from mild to profound deafness. Onset can be sudden, rapidly progressive, slowly progressive, or fluctuating. Type of hearing loss can be either conductive or sensorineural. Conductive hearing loss is caused by issues in the external ear, eardrum, or middle ear that disrupt sound transmission. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by problems in the cochlea, auditory nerve, or higher auditory processing pathways.

      To diagnose sensorineural and conductive deafness, a 512 Hz tuning fork is used to perform Rinne and Weber’s tests. These tests help determine the type of hearing loss based on the results. In Rinne’s test, air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) are compared, while Weber’s test checks for sound lateralization.

      Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the abnormal accumulation of skin cells in the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces. It is believed to develop from a retraction pocket that traps squamous cells. Cholesteatoma can cause the accumulation of keratin and the destruction of adjacent bones and tissues due to the production of destructive enzymes. It can lead to mixed sensorineural and conductive deafness as it affects both the middle and inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 121 - A child develops a palsy of their right arm following a traumatic birth....

    Incorrect

    • A child develops a palsy of their right arm following a traumatic birth. During the examination, there is a deformity known as 'claw hand' and sensory loss on the ulnar side of the forearm and hand.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klumpke’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Klumpke’s palsy, also known as Dejerine-Klumpke palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus. The most commonly affected root is C8, but T1 can also be involved. The main cause of Klumpke’s palsy is when the arm is pulled forcefully in an outward position during a difficult childbirth. It can also occur in adults with apical lung carcinoma (Pancoast’s syndrome).

      Clinically, Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by a deformity known as ‘claw hand’, which is caused by the paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. There is also a loss of sensation along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. In some cases where T1 is affected, a condition called Horner’s syndrome may also be present.

      Klumpke’s palsy can be distinguished from Erb’s palsy, which affects the upper roots of the brachial plexus (C5 and sometimes C6). In Erb’s palsy, the arm hangs by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the ‘waiter’s tip sign’). Additionally, there is a loss of shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 122 - You are requested to observe and approve a DOPS form for a final...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to observe and approve a DOPS form for a final year medical student who will be conducting nasal cautery on a 68-year-old patient experiencing epistaxis. You inquire with the student regarding potential complications associated with the procedure. What is a commonly acknowledged complication of nasal cautery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septal perforation

      Explanation:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 123 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which she feels that other people can hear what she is thinking. She is finding the sensation very distressing.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Thought broadcast is one of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts can be perceived by others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 124 - You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while getting out of bed. What can be helpful in identifying a femoral neck fracture on the anteroposterior X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shenton's line

      Explanation:

      Shenton’s line is a useful tool for identifying hip fractures on radiographs. It is a curved line that is drawn along the bottom edge of the upper pubic bone and the inner lower edge of the femur neck. This line should be smooth and uninterrupted. If there are any breaks or irregularities in the line, it could indicate a fracture, dysplasia, or dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 125 - A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, known as an allergen. These reactions are triggered by IgE and typically happen within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen.

      A rapid onset of an urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after being exposed to an allergen (such as latex), is highly likely to be caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
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  • Question 126 - A 35 year old individual arrives at the clinic with sudden vertigo that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old individual arrives at the clinic with sudden vertigo that started within the last day. You suspect the presence of vestibular neuronitis. What characteristics would you anticipate in a patient with vestibular neuronitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus with fast phase away from the affected ear

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis does not typically cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or focal neurological deficits. However, it is characterized by the presence of nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement. In vestibular neuronitis, nystagmus is usually fine horizontal or mixed horizontal-torsional. It consistently beats in the same direction, regardless of head rotation, and can be reduced when focusing on a fixed point.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 127 - A 25 year old female has been brought into the emergency department (ED)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female has been brought into the emergency department (ED) in the early hours of the morning after being discovered unresponsive in a parking lot behind a nightclub by the authorities. The paramedics initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which has been ongoing since the patient's arrival in the ED. The patient's core temperature is recorded at 28ºC. You contemplate the most effective Rewarming strategy to employ. Which method of Rewarming is known for producing a rapid increase in core body temperature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiopulmonary bypass

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is the most efficient technique for warming up a patient who is experiencing hypothermia. While other methods may also be suitable and may have already been initiated by the paramedic team, CPB stands out as the most effective approach.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 128 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing severe symptoms. He hands you a note to read that expresses his thoughts about his condition. However, you struggle to comprehend it as it is excessively verbose and highly disorganized.
      Which ONE of the following cognitive impairments is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graphorrhea

      Explanation:

      Graphorrhoea is a communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and a tendency to ramble in written work. It is similar to word salad, but specifically occurs in written form. This condition is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 129 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with back pain and a fever. After a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with back pain and a fever. After a thorough evaluation and tests, the patient is diagnosed with discitis. She has no significant medical history and does not take any medications regularly.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.

      The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.

      When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.

      Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.

      A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 130 - A 45-year-old woman presents with multiple reddish-purple nodules on her arms and chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with multiple reddish-purple nodules on her arms and chest that have developed over the past month. She has a known history of HIV infection.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) is a type of cancer that affects the connective tissues. It is caused by a virus called human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). This cancer is more likely to occur in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV or those who have undergone organ transplants.

      The main symptom of KS is the development of skin lesions. These lesions initially appear as red-purple spots and quickly progress to become raised bumps and nodules. They can appear on any part of the body, but are most commonly found on the lower limbs, back, face, mouth, and genital area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 131 - A middle-aged man who lives by himself is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man who lives by himself is brought to the Emergency Department by his brother; he feels excessively warm and is extremely thirsty. He feels nauseated but has not vomited yet. His core temperature is currently 40.2°C, and his heart rate is 106 bpm. He is fully conscious, and his GCS is 15. There is currently a heatwave during the summer, and he has been at home alone in a poorly ventilated apartment.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heat exhaustion

      Explanation:

      Heat exhaustion typically comes before heat stroke. If left untreated, heat exhaustion often progresses to heat stroke. The body’s ability to dissipate heat is still functioning, and the body temperature is usually below 41°C. Common symptoms include nausea, decreased urine output, weakness, headache, thirst, and a fast heart rate. The central nervous system is usually unaffected. Patients often complain of feeling hot and appear flushed and sweaty.

      Heat cramps are characterized by intense thirst and muscle cramps. Body temperature is often elevated but usually remains below 40°C. Sweating, heat dissipation mechanisms, and cognitive function are preserved, and there is no neurological impairment.

      Heat stroke is defined as a systemic inflammatory response with a core temperature above 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Typical symptoms of heat stroke include:

      – Core temperature above 40.6°C
      – Early symptoms include extreme fatigue, headache, fainting, flushed face, vomiting, and diarrhea
      – The skin is usually hot and dry
      – Sweating may occur in about 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke
      – The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign
      – Hyperventilation is almost always present
      – Cardiovascular dysfunction, such as irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, and shock
      – Respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
      – Central nervous system dysfunction, including seizures and coma
      – If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multiple organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occur

      Malignant hypothermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are highly unlikely in this case, as the patient has no recent history of general anesthesia or taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 132 - A 35-year-old patient with asthma comes in with acute theophylline toxicity. Along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with asthma comes in with acute theophylline toxicity. Along with theophylline, they use salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers.
      What factor is most likely to have caused this episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral infection

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 133 - A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, headache, muscle spasms, and tingling sensations in the limbs. The patient has no regular medication and no significant medical history. You decide to order blood tests for analysis. The patient's blood results and observations are as follows:

      Sodium (Na+): 152 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+): 3.3 mmol/l
      Urea: 4.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 71 µmol/l

      Blood pressure: 180/96 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 80
      Respiration rate: 14
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
      Temperature: 36.8ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Conn’s syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is often characterized by hypertension along with hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia. On the other hand, Addison’s disease typically leads to hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalaemia. Hyponatraemia is commonly associated with pituitary adenoma, while acute renal failure (ARF) is characterized by elevated levels of urea and creatinine, and hyperkalaemia is frequently observed in ARF.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 134 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 135 - A 25-year-old man has been experiencing severe, bloody diarrhea for the past week....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been experiencing severe, bloody diarrhea for the past week. A stool sample has been sent for analysis, which has cultured Campylobacter jejuni.
      Which of the following antibacterial medications would be the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE and the BNF suggest that if treatment is necessary for campylobacter enteritis, clarithromycin should be the first choice. Azithromycin and erythromycin can be used interchangeably, and ciprofloxacin is a suitable alternative. It is important to note that many cases of campylobacter enteritis resolve on their own without treatment. However, individuals with severe infections or those who are immunocompromised should receive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 136 - Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca...

    Incorrect

    • Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca compartment blocks (FICB) for pediatric patients with a fractured femoral neck.
      Which of the following nerves is consistently blocked by a FICB?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The fascia iliaca compartment is a space within the body that has specific boundaries. It is located at the front of the hip and is surrounded by various muscles and structures. The anterior limit of this compartment is formed by the posterior surface of the fascia iliaca, which covers the iliacus muscle. Additionally, the medial reflection of this fascia covers every surface of the psoas major muscle. On the posterior side, the limit is formed by the anterior surface of the iliacus muscle and the psoas major muscle. The medial boundary is the vertebral column, while the cranially lateral boundary is the inner lip of the iliac crest. This compartment is also continuous with the space between the quadratus lumborum muscle and its fascia in a cranio-medial direction.

      The fascia iliaca compartment is important because it allows for the deposition of local anesthetic in sufficient volumes. This can be achieved through a straightforward injection, which targets the femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves. These nerves supply sensation to the medial, anterior, and lateral thigh. Occasionally, the obturator nerve is also blocked, although this can vary from person to person.

      To perform a fascia iliaca compartment block (FICB), specific landmarks need to be identified. An imaginary line is drawn between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic tubercle. This line is then divided into thirds. The injection entry point is marked 1 cm caudal (inferior) from the junction of the lateral and middle third.

      However, there are certain contraindications to performing a FICB. These include patient refusal, anticoagulation or bleeding disorders, allergy to local anesthetics, previous femoral bypass surgery, and infection or inflammation over the injection site.

      As with any medical procedure, there are potential complications associated with a FICB. These can include intravascular injection, local anesthetic toxicity, allergy to the local anesthetic, temporary or permanent nerve damage, infection, and block failure. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and take appropriate precautions when performing a FICB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 137 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her nursing home due to severe diarrhea for the past 3 days. You observe that over the past month the patient has undergone three rounds of antibiotics for recurrent cellulitis. You contemplate the likelihood of a Clostridium difficile infection. What proportion of antibiotic-associated diarrhea is attributed to Clostridium difficile infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20-30%

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 138 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new job and spends a significant amount of time on a computer. He admits to feeling more stressed than usual lately. He describes his headaches as a tight band around his head that sometimes extends into his neck. The headaches are more severe towards the end of the day and typically last for a couple of hours. He does not experience any aura, sensitivity to light, or nausea during an episode. The headaches occur approximately 4-5 days per month and are relieved by over-the-counter pain medication.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episodic tension-type headache

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history is indicative of episodic tension-type headache. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as experiencing headaches on more than 15 days per month.

      Migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances such as hemianopia or scintillating scotoma that spreads. Migraine without aura must meet the criteria set by the International Headache Society, which are outlined below:

      1. The patient must have at least five attacks that meet criteria 2-4.
      2. The duration of each headache attack should be between 4 and 72 hours.
      3. The headache must have at least two of the following characteristics:
      – Located on one side of the head
      – Pulsating quality
      – Moderate or severe pain intensity
      – Aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g., walking or climbing stairs)
      4. During the headache, the patient must experience at least one of the following:
      – Nausea and/or vomiting
      – Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia)
      5. The headache should not be attributed to another disorder.

      Medication overuse headache is suspected when a patient uses multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches. Combination medications containing barbiturates, codeine, and caffeine are frequently involved. The diagnosis can only be confirmed when the symptoms improve after discontinuing the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 139 - A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents with intermittent vomiting. They inform you that for the past few days the baby has been projectile vomiting approximately 30 minutes after each feed. The parents are worried because the baby is not wetting her diaper as frequently as usual. Bowel movements are normal in consistency but less frequent. The baby has no fever, rashes, and her vital signs are normal. The parents inquire about the treatment plan for the most likely underlying diagnosis.

      What is the management approach for the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the parents the child will likely require a pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure. Before undergoing surgery, the patient should be rehydrated and any electrolyte imbalances should be corrected.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 140 - A 45-year-old doctor in the Emergency Department complains of a red and itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old doctor in the Emergency Department complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions, also known as allergic reactions, are triggered when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, which is referred to as the allergen. These reactions are mediated by IgE and typically manifest within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen. One common symptom of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is the rapid onset of a urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after coming into contact with the allergen, such as latex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
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  • Question 141 - A one-month-old infant develops eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both of...

    Incorrect

    • A one-month-old infant develops eyelid swelling and a mucopurulent discharge from both of his eyes approximately two weeks after birth. His mother is currently being treated for a chlamydia infection.
      What is the baby's highest risk of complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis is the most frequent occurrence of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns. Ophthalmia neonatorum refers to any cause of conjunctivitis during the newborn period, regardless of the specific organism responsible. Chlamydia is now the leading cause, accounting for up to 40% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoea, on the other hand, only accounts for less than 1% of reported cases. The remaining cases are caused by non-sexually transmitted bacteria like Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Haemophilus species, and viruses.

      Gonorrhoeal ophthalmia neonatorum typically presents within 1 to 5 days after birth. It is characterized by intense redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, eyelid swelling, and a severe discharge of pus. Corneal ulceration and perforation may also be present.

      Chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, usually appears between 5 to 14 days after birth. It is characterized by a gradually increasing watery discharge that eventually becomes purulent. The inflammation in the eyes is usually less severe compared to gonococcal infection, and there is a lower risk of corneal ulceration and perforation.

      The second most common manifestation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in newborns is pneumonia. Approximately 5-30% of infected neonates will develop pneumonia. About half of these infants will also have a history of ophthalmia neonatorum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 142 - A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
      Which of the following conditions is associated with ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis

      Explanation:

      Cholelithiasis is a common occurrence in individuals with Crohn’s disease. There are several other conditions that are known to be associated with Crohn’s disease. These include a higher prevalence in smokers, with approximately 50-60% of patients being smokers. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease may experience aphthous ulcers, uveitis, episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and osteoporosis. However, it is important to note that primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis are associations commonly seen in ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn’s disease. Lastly, dermatitis herpetiformis is a condition that is associated with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 143 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She has engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner within the past few months. During speculum examination, you observe a cervix that appears strawberry-colored.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) is a highly prevalent sexually transmitted disease that affects individuals worldwide. This disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan organism that can survive without the presence of mitochondria or peroxisomes. The risk of contracting TV increases with the number of sexual partners one has. It is important to note that men can also be affected by this disease, experiencing conditions such as prostatitis or urethritis.

      The clinical features of TV can vary. Surprisingly, up to 70% of patients may not exhibit any symptoms at all. However, for those who do experience symptoms, they may notice a frothy or green-yellow discharge with a strong odor. Other symptoms may include vaginitis and inflammation of the cervix, which can give it a distinctive strawberry appearance. In pregnant individuals, TV can lead to complications such as premature labor and low birth weight.

      Diagnosing TV can sometimes occur incidentally during routine smear tests. However, if a patient is symptomatic, the diagnosis is typically made through vaginal swabs for women or penile swabs for men. Treatment for TV usually involves taking metronidazole, either as a 400 mg dose twice a day for 5-7 days or as a single 2 g dose. It is worth noting that the single dose may have more gastrointestinal side effects. Another antibiotic option is tinidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 144 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of a 45-year-old male who has suffered a traumatic brain injury. What should be included in the initial management of a patient with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintain systolic blood pressure >90 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Maintaining adequate blood pressure is crucial in managing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The recommended blood pressure targets may vary depending on the source. The Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) suggests maintaining an adequate blood pressure, while the 4th edition of the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends maintaining a systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 100 mm Hg for individuals aged 50-69 years (or above 110 mm Hg for those aged 15-49 years) to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      When managing a patient with increased ICP, the initial steps should include maintaining normal body temperature to prevent fever, positioning the patient with a 30º head-up tilt, and administering analgesia and sedation as needed. It is important to monitor and maintain blood pressure, using inotropes if necessary to achieve the target. Additionally, preparations should be made to use medications such as Mannitol or hypertonic saline to lower ICP if required. Hyperventilation may also be considered, although it carries the risk of inducing ischemia and requires monitoring of carbon dioxide levels.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 145 - A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately. His knees have been especially painful, and he has been using a hot water bottle in the evenings for relief. Upon examination, you observe pigmented areas with some redness on both of his knees.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema ab igne

      Explanation:

      Erythema ab igne is a condition that is frequently observed in older individuals. It typically occurs when they spend extended periods of time near a fire or utilize a hot water bottle in an attempt to relieve pain symptoms. This condition arises due to the harmful effects of heat on the skin, resulting in the appearance of reddened and pigmented areas. Fortunately, erythema ab igne tends to resolve on its own without any specific treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 146 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of a painless, solid lump in the body of his left testis. Upon examination, the lump is firm, located within the testis, and does not show transillumination.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular cancer

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is the most common form of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 34. In recent times, there have been campaigns aimed at raising awareness about the importance of self-examination for early detection. Some risk factors for this type of cancer include having undescended testes, especially if it affects both testicles, which increases the risk by ten times. Additionally, individuals who have had testicular cancer in the past have a 4% chance of developing a second cancer.

      The typical presentation of testicular cancer is a painless swelling in the testicles. When examined, the swelling feels hard and is located within the testis. It cannot be illuminated when light is shone through it. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and usually confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. If seminomas are diagnosed at stage 1 (confined to the testis only), the 5-year survival rate is 98%. The remaining 40% of cases are teratomas, which can grow at a faster rate and often coexist with seminomas. In cases where the tumors are of mixed type, they are treated as teratomas due to their more aggressive nature. The main treatment for testicular cancer is surgery, with the possibility of additional chemotherapy and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 147 - A 38 year old female presents to the emergency department with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old female presents to the emergency department with concerns about her heavy menstrual bleeding and extreme fatigue. She reports that her periods have remained regular but have been progressively getting heavier over the past three months. Additionally, she mentions feeling constantly cold and noticing significant hair loss. Upon examination, her vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 132/94 mmHg
      Pulse: 50 bpm
      Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      Temperature: 35.8ºC

      During the examination, it is observed that the patient's palms have a pale yellow color and she has thin hair with complete loss of the lateral eyebrows. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, which leads to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. This can result in various clinical features. Some common symptoms include fatigue, lethargy, and cold intolerance. Patients may also experience bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and diastolic hypertension (high blood pressure). Hair loss and weight gain are also commonly seen in individuals with hypothyroidism. Other possible symptoms include constipation, poor appetite, and carpal tunnel syndrome. Skin pigmentation changes, particularly yellow discoloration, may occur due to carotene deposition in the dermis, most notably on the palms and soles.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 148 - A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and numb fingertips after spending the night outdoors in freezing temperatures due to excessive alcohol consumption during a New Year's celebration. You suspect that the patient is experiencing second degree frostbite. What is the most accurate description of second degree frostbite?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin necrosis affecting the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis

      Explanation:

      Second degree frostbite is characterized by tissue necrosis that affects both the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis. However, there is still some healthy dermis present, which allows for regeneration and recovery of the skin. This type of frostbite is often referred to as partial thickness. Clinically, it is observed as the formation of blisters filled with clear or milky fluid on the surface of the skin, accompanied by redness and swelling.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 149 - A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. You observe that the patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis and conduct a Qfractureâ„¢ assessment. What is the threshold for conducting a DXA (DEXA) bone density scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 150 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10% of patients go on to commit suicide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of schizophrenia is consistent across all social classes. It affects individuals from all walks of life without discrimination. The likelihood of developing schizophrenia over one’s lifetime is 1%, and this probability remains the same for both men and women. However, it is worth noting that men tend to experience the onset of symptoms at a younger age compared to women, with the average age of onset falling between 15 and 45 years.

      There is a recognized genetic predisposition for schizophrenia, meaning that certain individuals may have a higher likelihood of developing the condition due to their genetic makeup. The risk of schizophrenia affecting first-degree relatives, such as siblings or parents, is approximately 10%. Furthermore, the risk of children being affected by schizophrenia increases to 40%.

      When considering the impact of genetics on schizophrenia, it is interesting to note that monozygotic twins, who share identical genetic material, have a concordance rate of around 50%. This suggests that genetic factors play a significant role in the development of the condition.

      Tragically, approximately 10% of individuals suffering from schizophrenia ultimately die by suicide, particularly during the early stages of the illness. This highlights the importance of providing appropriate support and intervention to individuals with schizophrenia to prevent such devastating outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 151 - A 42-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a high-speed car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a high-speed car accident. There was a prolonged extraction at the scene, and a full trauma call is made. She is disoriented and slightly restless. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 125, blood pressure 83/45, oxygen saturation 98% on high-flow oxygen, respiratory rate 31, temperature 36.1°C. Her capillary refill time is 5 seconds, and her extremities appear pale and cool to the touch. Her cervical spine is immobilized with triple precautions. The airway is clear, and her chest examination is normal. Two large-bore needles have been inserted in her antecubital fossa, and a complete set of blood tests, including a request for a cross-match, has been sent to the laboratory. She experiences significant tenderness in the suprapubic area upon abdominal palpation, and noticeable bruising is evident around her pelvis. A pelvic X-ray reveals a vertical shear type pelvic fracture.
      What approximate percentage of her circulatory volume has she lost?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30-40%

      Explanation:

      This patient is currently experiencing moderate shock, classified as class III. This level of shock corresponds to a loss of 30-40% of their circulatory volume, which is equivalent to a blood loss of 1500-2000 mL.

      Hemorrhage can be categorized into four different classes based on physiological parameters and clinical signs. These classes are classified as class I, class II, class III, and class IV.

      In class I hemorrhage, the blood loss is up to 750 mL or up to 15% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is less than 100 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is normal. The pulse pressure may be normal or increased, and the respiratory rate is within the range of 14-20 breaths per minute. The urine output is greater than 30 mL per hour, and the patient’s CNS/mental status is slightly anxious.

      In class II hemorrhage, the blood loss ranges from 750-1500 mL or 15-30% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is between 100-120 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure remains normal. The pulse pressure is decreased, and the respiratory rate increases to 20-30 breaths per minute. The urine output decreases to 20-30 mL per hour, and the patient may experience mild anxiety.

      The patient in this case is in class III hemorrhage, with a blood loss of 1500-2000 mL or 30-40% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is elevated, ranging from 120-140 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is decreased. The pulse pressure is also decreased, and the respiratory rate is elevated to 30-40 breaths per minute. The urine output decreases significantly to 5-15 mL per hour, and the patient may experience anxiety and confusion.

      Class IV hemorrhage represents the most severe level of blood loss, with a loss of over 40% of the blood volume. The pulse rate is greater than 140 beats per minute, and the systolic blood pressure is significantly decreased. The pulse pressure is decreased, and the respiratory rate is over 40 breaths per minute. The urine output becomes negligible, and the patient may become confused and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 152 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed and participates in various sports. During the examination, you observe tenderness over her medial epicondyle, and her pain intensifies with resisted pronation at the wrist.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Golfer’s elbow

      Explanation:

      Golfer’s elbow, also known as medial epicondylitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain in the flexor tendons that attach to the medial epicondyle. It is commonly caused by repetitive strain, with golf being a frequent culprit. Similarly, tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, occurs when the same strain and inflammation affect the tendons at the lateral epicondyle. In both cases, pain can be worsened by resisted wrist extension. Treatment involves avoiding activities that trigger symptoms and using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for flare-ups. In more severe cases, steroid injections may be necessary.

      Ulnar neuritis presents with symptoms such as hand clumsiness, muscle weakness, and wasting in the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve. Patients may also experience numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by narrowing of the ulnar groove and can be associated with risk factors like osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies may be recommended, and surgical decompression may be necessary.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the tendon sheaths for the thumb extensor and abductor muscles. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.

      Bursitis can develop from repeated pressure on the olecranon, resulting in swelling and discomfort in that area. Aspiration of fluid may be performed to rule out conditions like gout or sepsis. If these conditions are ruled out, bursitis often resolves on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 153 - A 21-year-old student comes in with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student comes in with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and feeling unwell for the past week. She mentions having a faint rash all over her body that disappeared quickly. During the examination, you observe mild splenomegaly. The heterophile antibody test comes back positive.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis is typically a self-limiting infection that is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the human herpesvirus family. About 10% of cases are caused by cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection.

      This clinical infection is most commonly observed in populations with a large number of young adults, such as university students and active-duty military personnel.

      The main clinical features of infectious mononucleosis include a low-grade fever, fatigue, prolonged malaise, sore throat (often accompanied by tonsillar enlargement and exudate), a transient, fine, non-itchy rash, lymphadenopathy (most commonly in the cervical region), arthralgia and myalgia, mild enlargement of the liver and spleen, and jaundice (which is less common in young adults but more prevalent in the elderly).

      To diagnose EBV infectious mononucleosis, a variety of unrelated non-EBV heterophile antibodies and specific EBV antibodies can be used.

      1. Heterophile antibodies:
      Around 70-90% of patients with EBV infectious mononucleosis produce heterophile antibodies, which are antibodies that react against antigens from other species. False positives can occur with hepatitis, malaria, toxoplasmosis, rubella, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), lymphoma, and leukemia. Two main screening tests can detect these antibodies and provide rapid results within a day:
      – Paul-Bunnell test: Sheep red blood cells agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies.
      – Monospot test: Horse red blood cells agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies.

      2. EBV-specific antibodies:
      Patients who remain heterophile-negative after six weeks are considered heterophile-negative and should be tested for EBV-specific antibodies. These antibodies are also useful in cases where a false positive heterophile antibody test is suspected.

      Other useful investigations include a full blood count, which often shows a raised white cell count with lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes in more than 20% of cases, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in most patients, liver function tests (LFTs) that may show mild elevation of serum transaminases, throat swabs to rule out group A streptococci pharyngitis as a differential diagnosis, and abdominal ultrasound if splenomegaly is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 154 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and hasn't had an alcoholic drink since the previous night.
      Which assessment scale should be utilized to guide the treatment of this woman's alcohol withdrawal? Select ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CIWA scale

      Explanation:

      The CIWA scale, also known as the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale, is a scale consisting of ten items that is utilized in the evaluation and management of alcohol withdrawal. It is currently recommended by both NICE and the Royal College of Emergency Medicine for assessing patients experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. The maximum score on the CIWA scale is 67, with scores indicating the severity of withdrawal symptoms. A score of less than 5 suggests mild withdrawal, while a score between 6 and 20 indicates moderate withdrawal. Any score above 20 is considered severe withdrawal. The ten items evaluated on the scale encompass common symptoms and signs of alcohol withdrawal, such as nausea/vomiting, tremors, sweating, anxiety, agitation, sensory disturbances, and cognitive impairments.

      In addition to the CIWA scale, there are other screening tools available for assessing various conditions. The CAGE questionnaire is commonly used to screen for alcohol-related issues. The STEPI is utilized as a screening tool for early symptoms of the schizophrenia prodrome. The EPDS is an evidence-based questionnaire that can be employed to screen for postnatal depression. Lastly, the SCOFF questionnaire is a screening tool used to identify the possible presence of eating disorders.

      For further information on the assessment and management of acute alcohol withdrawal, the NICE pathway is a valuable resource. The RCEM syllabus also provides relevant information on this topic. Additionally, the MHC1 module on alcohol and substance misuse offers further reading material for those interested in this subject.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 155 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of loose...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of loose watery stools, abdominal cramps, and intermittent vomiting for the past 48 hours. The patient mentions that several of her coworkers have been absent from work due to a stomach virus. Based on these symptoms and history, what is the most probable causative organism for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus is the leading cause of gastroenteritis in adults in the UK. Viruses are responsible for the majority of cases of infectious diarrhea, with norovirus being the most common culprit in adults. Among young children, rotavirus is the primary pathogen, although its prevalence has decreased since the introduction of a rotavirus vaccine. As of 2023, rotavirus remains the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in children.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a transient disorder characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. It is caused by enteric infections with viruses, bacteria, or parasites. The most common viral causes of gastroenteritis in adults include norovirus, rotavirus, and adenovirus. Bacterial pathogens such as Campylobacter jejuni and coli, Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi and paratyphi, and Shigella dysenteriae, flexneri, boydii, and sonnei can also cause gastroenteritis. Parasites such as Cryptosporidium, Entamoeba histolytica, and Giardia intestinalis or Giardia lamblia can also lead to diarrhea.

      Diagnosis of gastroenteritis is usually based on clinical symptoms, and investigations are not required in many cases. However, stool culture may be indicated in certain situations, such as when the patient is systemically unwell or immunocompromised, has acute painful diarrhea or blood in the stool suggesting dysentery, has recently taken antibiotics or acid-suppressing medications, or has not resolved diarrhea by day 7 or has recurrent diarrhea.

      Management of gastroenteritis in adults typically involves advice on oral rehydration. Intravenous rehydration and more intensive treatment may be necessary for patients who are systemically unwell, exhibit severe dehydration, or have intractable vomiting or high-output diarrhea. Antibiotics are not routinely required unless a specific organism is identified that requires treatment. Antidiarrheal drugs, antiemetics, and probiotics are not routinely recommended.

      Complications of gastroenteritis can occur, particularly in young children, the elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals. These complications include dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, acute kidney injury, haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, reactive arthritis, Reiter’s syndrome, aortitis, osteomyelitis, sepsis, toxic megacolon, pancreatitis, sclerosing cholangitis, liver cirrhosis, weight loss, chronic diarrhea, irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, acquired lactose intolerance, Guillain-Barré syndrome, meningitis, invasive entamoeba infection, and liver abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 156 - You are asked to help with a 68-year-old patient who initially arrived at...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to help with a 68-year-old patient who initially arrived at the emergency department complaining of chest discomfort and was found to have a slow heart rate before experiencing a cardiac arrest. Which of the following statements about medications used during cardiac arrest and peri-arrest is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as a blocker for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, making it an antagonist. It is commonly administered during peri-arrest bradycardia. In adults, a dose of 500 mcg is given every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum total dose of 3mg. On the other hand, the initial intravenous dose of amiodarone is 300 mg. Amiodarone works by prolonging repolarization and decreasing myocardial excitability. Additionally, lidocaine functions by blocking sodium channels.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 157 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-day history of increasing numbness and muscle weakness in his legs. The neurological symptoms seem to be spreading up his legs and now affecting his hands as well. He mentions that he had a severe bout of diarrhea two weeks ago, but has no other significant medical history.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). GBS typically presents with initial symptoms of sensory changes or pain, accompanied by muscle weakness in the hands and/or feet. This weakness often spreads to the arms and upper body, affecting both sides. During the acute phase, GBS can be life-threatening, with around 15% of patients experiencing respiratory muscle weakness and requiring mechanical ventilation.

      The exact cause of GBS is unknown, but it is believed to involve an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the peripheral nerves. In about 75% of cases, there is a preceding infection, commonly affecting the gastrointestinal or respiratory tracts.

      In this particular case, the most likely underlying cause is Campylobacter jejuni, a gastrointestinal pathogen. This is supported by the recent history of a severe diarrheal illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 158 - A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent due to the child developing a barking cough and rapid breathing. After examining the child, you diagnose croup and decide to administer corticosteroids and monitor the child. One hour after giving the oral dexamethasone dose, the nurse requests your review as the child's respiratory rate has increased and the child appears lethargic. What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Children with severe croup require high flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline as part of their treatment. If a child is agitated or lethargic, it is a sign that the disease is severe. In addition to standard steroid treatment, high flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline are necessary for treating severe croup. It is important to note that beta 2 agonists are not effective for children under 2 years old.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 159 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor and has now ceased.
      Which ONE of the following arteries is not involved in Kiesselbach’s plexus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior ethmoidal artery

      Explanation:

      Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is located in the front and lower part of the nasal septum. It is the most common site of bleeding in cases of anterior epistaxis. This plexus is formed by the convergence of four arteries: the anterior ethmoidal artery, the sphenopalatine artery, the greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery. It is important to note that while the posterior ethmoidal artery supplies the septum of the nose, it does not contribute to Kiesselbach’s plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 160 - A 70-year-old woman from a retirement community experiences a sudden collapse. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman from a retirement community experiences a sudden collapse. Her blood sugar level is measured and found to be 2.2. She has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.
      Which ONE medication is the LEAST probable cause of her hypoglycemic episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a type of biguanide medication that, when taken alone, does not lead to low blood sugar levels (hypoglycemia). However, it can potentially worsen hypoglycemia when used in combination with other drugs like sulphonylureas.

      Gliclazide, on the other hand, is a sulphonylurea medication known to cause hypoglycemia. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione drug, is also recognized as a cause of hypoglycemia.

      It’s important to note that Actrapid and Novomix are both forms of insulin, which can also result in hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 161 - A 9-year-old girl comes in with a painful, red, swollen right eye. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl comes in with a painful, red, swollen right eye. She recently had a sinus infection but has no other significant medical history. Her temperature is 38.2°C. She experiences pain when moving her eye and complains of seeing double.
      What ONE clinical feature would be most helpful in differentiating between orbital and peri-orbital cellulitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red desaturation

      Explanation:

      Peri-orbital cellulitis, also known as preseptal cellulitis, is an infection that affects the eyelid and the skin surrounding the eye in front of the orbital septal. On the other hand, orbital cellulitis is a medical emergency that occurs when there is an infection in the tissues of the eye located behind the orbital septum.

      The most common organisms that cause these infections include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Haemophilus influenzae.

      Peri-orbital cellulitis may present with various symptoms, such as swelling of the eyelid, redness around the eye, discharge, difficulty closing the eye, conjunctival injection, mild fever, teary eyes, and discomfort.

      To distinguish orbital cellulitis from peri-orbital cellulitis, it is important to look out for additional symptoms, including pain when moving the eye, protrusion of the eye (proptosis), redness of the eye (red desaturation), vision loss, eye muscle paralysis (ophthalmoplegia), double vision (diplopia), and optic nerve damage (optic neuropathy). These symptoms indicate a more severe condition that requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 162 - You evaluate a 72-year-old woman with a painful swollen left big toe. The...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 72-year-old woman with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain started this morning and is described as the most severe pain she has ever experienced. It has gradually worsened over the past 8 hours. She is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to come to the appointment in open-toe sandals. The overlying skin is red and shiny.

      She has a history of hypertension, which has been challenging to control. She is currently taking amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 10 mg per day for this and is awaiting a review of her antihypertensive medication. Her blood pressure today is 165/94 mmHg.

      She has recently also been diagnosed with a myelodysplastic syndrome and requires regular blood transfusions. She is being monitored in a local hematology clinic for a low white cell count and thrombocytopenia.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this case is clearly gout. According to the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) guidelines, the development of sudden joint pain accompanied by swelling, tenderness, and redness, which worsens over a period of 6-12 hours, strongly suggests crystal arthropathy.

      Checking serum urate levels to confirm high levels of uric acid before starting treatment for acute gout attacks is not very beneficial and should not delay treatment. While these levels can be useful for monitoring treatment response, they often decrease during an acute attack and can even be normal. If levels are checked and found to be normal during an attack, they should be rechecked once the attack has resolved.

      The first-line treatment for acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. However, caution should be exercised when using NSAIDs in patients with a history of hypertension. Since this patient has had difficulty controlling their blood pressure and remains hypertensive, it would be wise to avoid NSAIDs in this case.

      Colchicine is an effective alternative for treating gout, although it may take longer to take effect. It is often used in patients who cannot take NSAIDs due to contraindications, such as hypertension or a history of peptic ulcer disease. It’s important to note that colchicine can also affect the bone marrow, leading to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in platelets. Therefore, it should not be used in patients with blood disorders, as in this case.

      During an acute gout attack, allopurinol should not be used as it can prolong the attack and even trigger another acute attack. If a patient is already taking allopurinol, it should be continued, and the acute attack should be treated with NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids as appropriate.

      Corticosteroids are an effective alternative for managing acute gout in patients who cannot take NSAIDs or colchicine. They can be administered orally, intramuscularly, intravenously, or directly into the affected joint. In this patient’s case, using corticosteroids would be the safest and most reasonable treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 163 - A 40-year-old man is prescribed a medication for a neurological condition in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is prescribed a medication for a neurological condition in the 2nd-trimester of his wife's pregnancy. The baby is born with restlessness, muscle contractions, shaking, and exhibits unsteady, abrupt movements.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 164 - You evaluate a 45-year-old man with a history of difficult-to-control hypertension. His initial...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old man with a history of difficult-to-control hypertension. His initial diagnosis was made after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. He is currently taking Lisinopril 10 mg once daily and Amlodipine 10 mg once daily. Despite this treatment, his blood pressure today is 156/98. On examination, he appears normal and is otherwise in good health. A recent blood test shows the following results:
      Sodium: 145 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      Potassium: 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      Urea: 6.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      Creatinine: 88 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) or bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia. Conn’s syndrome is likely in a patient who has difficult-to-control hypertension, low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia), and elevated or high normal levels of sodium. If the aldosterone:renin ratio is raised (>30), it further suggests primary hyperaldosteronism. CT scanning can be used to differentiate between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia. Treatment for hyperaldosteronism caused by an adenoma typically involves 4-6 weeks of spironolactone therapy followed by surgical removal of the adenoma. Adrenal hyperplasia usually responds well to potassium-sparing diuretics alone, such as spironolactone or amiloride.

      Renal artery stenosis could also be suspected in a case of resistant hypertension, but it would be expected to cause a decline in renal function when taking a full dose of an ACE inhibitor like ramipril. However, in this case, the patient’s renal function is completely normal.

      Phaeochromocytoma is associated with symptoms such as headaches, palpitations, tremors, and excessive sweating. The hypertension in phaeochromocytoma tends to occur in episodes. Since these symptoms are absent in this patient, a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is unlikely.

      Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by various other clinical features, including weight gain, central obesity, a hump-like accumulation of fat on the back (buffalo hump), muscle wasting in the limbs, excessive hair growth (hirsutism), thinning of the skin, easy bruising, acne, and depression. Since this patient does not exhibit any of these features, Cushing’s syndrome is unlikely.

      White coat syndrome is an unlikely diagnosis in this case because the initial diagnosis of hypertension was made based on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 165 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a history of long-term smoking.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has come in with worsening shortness of breath and coughing up blood. They have a long history of smoking, and the likely diagnosis is superior vena cava obstruction caused by a primary bronchial tumor.

      The typical symptoms of superior vena cava obstruction include breathlessness, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.

      Given the severity of the symptoms, this man needs to be urgently referred and admitted to the hospital. To provide immediate relief, his head should be elevated and he should be given supplemental oxygen. Corticosteroids and diuretics may also be administered. Further investigation through CT scanning is necessary, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 166 - A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of persistent vomiting, severe diarrhea, and loss of appetite. The patient reports feeling extremely weak. A peripheral cannula is inserted and blood samples are collected. The initial laboratory results are as follows:

      Sodium (Na+): 134 mmol/L
      Potassium (K+): 2.4 mmol/L
      Urea (Ur): 8.2 mmol/L
      Creatinine (Cr): 115 umol/L

      Based on these findings, which of the following additional tests should be prioritized and requested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia frequently occurs alongside hypokalaemia. It is important to note that potassium levels may not improve with supplementation until the magnesium deficiency is addressed.

      Further Reading:

      Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.

      Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.

      Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.

      Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.

      In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 167 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 168 - A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with a history of occasional wheezing and cough, which worsens at night. He recently had a cold and appears congested today. His mother reports that he often wheezes after a cold, and this can persist for several weeks after the infection has resolved. Both parents smoke, but his mother is trying to reduce her smoking, and neither parent smokes inside the house. There is no family history of asthma or allergies. Another doctor recently prescribed inhalers, but they have had little effect. On examination, he has a slight fever of 37.8°C, and there are scattered audible wheezes heard during chest examination.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral induced wheeze

      Explanation:

      Viral induced wheeze is a common condition in childhood that is triggered by a viral infection, typically a cold. The wheezing occurs during the infection and can persist for several weeks after the infection has cleared. This condition is most commonly seen in children under the age of three, as their airways are smaller. It is also more prevalent in babies who were small for their gestational age and in children whose parents smoke. It is important to note that viral induced wheeze does not necessarily mean that the child has asthma, although a small percentage of children with this condition may go on to develop asthma. Asthma is more commonly seen in children with a family history of asthma or allergies. Inhalers are often prescribed for the management of viral induced wheeze, but they may not always be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 169 - A 45-year-old man comes in feeling extremely sick with nausea and vomiting. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in feeling extremely sick with nausea and vomiting. He is suddenly disoriented and claims that everything appears to be yellow. A blood test shows that his potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l.
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter, as well as congestive cardiac failure. It belongs to a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes, which leads to an increase in intracellular sodium concentration. This, in turn, indirectly increases the availability of intracellular calcium through Na/Ca exchange.

      The rise in intracellular calcium levels caused by digoxin results in a positive inotropic effect, meaning it strengthens the force of heart contractions, and a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows down the heart rate.

      Therapeutic plasma levels of digoxin typically range between 1.0-1.5 nmol/l. However, higher concentrations may be necessary, and the specific value can vary between different laboratories. It is important to note that the risk of toxicity significantly increases when digoxin levels exceed 2 nmol/l.

      Signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, xanthopsia (yellow-green vision), and hyperkalemia (an early sign of significant toxicity).

      Several factors can potentially contribute to digoxin toxicity. These include being elderly, having renal failure, experiencing myocardial ischemia, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, acidosis, or hypothyroidism.

      Additionally, there are several drugs that can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. These include spironolactone, amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, and drugs that cause hypokalemia, such as thiazide and loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 170 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his father with an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his father with an itchy, red and watery right eye. On examination, there is mild erythema of palpebral conjunctiva, and follicles are visible on eversion of the eyelid. Lid oedema is evident, and you can also see a few petechial subconjunctival haemorrhages. The eye appears watery, and there is no purulent discharge. He has recently recovered from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. You make a diagnosis of viral conjunctivitis.

      How long does Public Health England recommend that he should be excluded from school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No school exclusion is necessary

      Explanation:

      According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period for viral or bacterial conjunctivitis from school, nursery, or childminders, unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 171 - A 45 year old patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by a family member. The patient began experiencing coughing symptoms ten days ago, but within the past 48 hours, they have developed a high fever, difficulty breathing during mild exertion, and the family reports that the patient appears confused. It is noted that the patient is currently taking azathioprine for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Upon assessing the patient's vital signs, you decide to initiate the sepsis 6 pathway. What is the recommended timeframe for implementing the 'sepsis six'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The sepsis 6 pathway is a time-sensitive protocol that should be started promptly and all 6 initial steps should be completed within 1 hour. It is important not to confuse the sepsis 6 pathway with the 6 hour care bundle. Time is of the essence when managing septic patients, and initiating the sepsis 6 pathway immediately has been proven to enhance survival rates in sepsis patients.

      Further Reading:

      There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.

      The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.

      To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.

      There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.

      NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 172 - A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia of the limbs, face, and tongue and left-sided deficits in motor eye activity. He has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and a previous ischemic stroke. A CT head scan is undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weber’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of the branches of the basilar artery that supply the midbrain leads to the development of Weber’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, which affects the limbs, face, and tongue due to damage to the descending motor tracts within the crus cerebri. Additionally, there are ipsilateral deficits in eye motor activity caused by damage to cranial nerve III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 173 - A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a history of being submerged in the pool while swimming with her parents. One of the parents explains that the child was floating on a pool noodle when a wave hit, causing the child to fall off the noodle. The child was not wearing any flotation devices and it took approximately 1 minute to find and rescue her from the water. Your consultant mentions that the child's diving reflex would have been activated. Which of the following statements accurately describes the diving reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Results in peripheral vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The diving reflex occurs when the face comes into contact with cold water, leading to apnoea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction. This response helps decrease the workload on the heart, lower oxygen demand in the heart muscle, and ensure adequate blood flow to the brain and vital organs. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for transmitting sensory information, while the vagus nerve (CN X) primarily controls the motor response. This reflex is more prominent in young children and is believed to contribute to their improved survival rates in prolonged submersion in cold water.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 174 - A young patient has developed a tremor and is experiencing nausea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient has developed a tremor and is experiencing nausea and vomiting as a result of taking a prescribed medication. Additionally, the patient has developed nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a commonly prescribed medication for bipolar disorder, as it helps stabilize mood. The recommended therapeutic range for lithium levels is typically between 0.4 and 0.8 mmol/l, although this range may vary depending on the laboratory. For maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals, the lower end of the range is usually targeted. Toxic effects of lithium are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l. It is important to monitor lithium levels one week after starting therapy and after any dosage adjustments.

      One potential side effect of lithium is the development of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to concentrate urine. However, lithium does not cause diabetes mellitus. Another known side effect is hypothyroidism, which is a decrease in thyroid hormone production, but it does not lead to hyperthyroidism, an overactive thyroid.

      Signs of lithium toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, ataxia (loss of coordination), confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus (repetitive, involuntary muscle contractions), nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. It is crucial to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 175 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain while having a bowel movement....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain while having a bowel movement. The pain usually continues for an additional 30-60 minutes afterward. She has also observed small amounts of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping. She has been experiencing constipation for the past couple of weeks.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline, and they are often caused by the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.

      Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last for up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.

      The initial management approach for an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)

      Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for cases where the fissure does not heal with conservative measures. It has a success rate of 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 176 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a fall in the playground at daycare. She has a bruise and a small scrape on her right knee and is walking with a slight limp, but she can put weight on her leg. Her pain is assessed using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'mild discomfort'.
      According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended as a loading dose for the treatment of mild discomfort in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol 20 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 177 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
      Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 178 - A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to the right forearm. The patient explains that he was smoking a cigarette while driving back from work when the cigarette accidentally fell onto his arm, igniting his sleeve which might have been soaked in gasoline from work. You observe circumferential burns encompassing the entire right forearm. What would be your primary concern regarding potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome can occur when there are circumferential burns on the arms or legs. This typically happens with full thickness burns, where the burnt skin becomes stiff and compresses the compartment, making it difficult for blood to flow out. To treat this condition, escharotomy and possibly fasciotomy may be necessary.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 179 - A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial...

    Incorrect

    • A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial palsy that began 48 hours ago. After conducting a thorough history and examination, the patient is diagnosed with Bell's palsy.
      Which of the following statements about Bell's palsy is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ‘Bell’s phenomenon’ is the rolling upwards and outwards of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by a facial paralysis that affects the lower motor neurons. It can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion by the inability to raise the eyebrow and the involvement of the upper facial muscles.

      One distinctive feature of Bell’s palsy is the occurrence of Bell’s phenomenon, which refers to the upward and outward rolling of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      Unlike some other conditions, Bell’s palsy does not lead to sensorineural deafness and tinnitus.

      Treatment options for Bell’s palsy include the use of steroids and acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 180 - A patient is experiencing lower gastrointestinal bleeding following the administration of heparin. You...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is experiencing lower gastrointestinal bleeding following the administration of heparin. You choose to utilize protamine sulfate to reverse the anticoagulation.

      Which ONE statement about protamine sulfate is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is administered subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex is inactive and is used to counteract the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.

      Apart from its ability to neutralize heparin, protamine sulphate also possesses a weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This is believed to be due to its inhibition of the formation and activity of thromboplastin.

      To administer protamine sulphate, it is slowly injected intravenously. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin to be neutralized, the time elapsed since heparin administration, and the aPTT. For every 100 IU of heparin, 1 mg of protamine is required for neutralization. However, the maximum adult dose within a 10-minute period should not exceed 50 mg.

      It is important to note that protamine sulphate has additional effects on the body. It acts as a depressant on the heart muscle and may lead to bradycardia and hypotension. These effects are caused by complement activation and the release of leukotrienes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 181 - A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a substance misuse issue. He has been attempting to quit for more than a year and consistently attends a community support group for his problem. The healthcare team in charge of his treatment have prescribed him Acamprosate to aid with his withdrawal.
      What substance is he most likely trying to withdraw from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate, also known as Campral, is a medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It is believed to work by stabilizing a chemical pathway in the brain that is disrupted during alcohol withdrawal. For optimal results, Acamprosate should be used alongside psychosocial support, as it helps reduce alcohol consumption and promote abstinence.

      When starting treatment with Acamprosate, it is important to begin as soon as possible after assisted withdrawal. The typical dosage is 1998 mg (666 mg three times a day), unless the patient weighs less than 60 kg, in which case a maximum of 1332 mg per day should be prescribed.

      Generally, Acamprosate is prescribed for up to 6 months. However, for those who benefit from the medication and wish to continue, it can be taken for a longer duration. If drinking persists 4-6 weeks after starting the drug, it should be discontinued.

      Patients who are prescribed Acamprosate should be closely monitored, with regular check-ins at least once a month for the first six months. If the medication is continued beyond six months, the frequency of check-ins can be reduced but should still occur at regular intervals.

      While routine blood tests are not mandatory, they can be considered if there is a need to monitor liver function recovery or as a motivational tool to show patients their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 182 - A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 15 minutes before her arrival. On arrival, she is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. She is known to be homeless and has a long history of alcohol abuse. The paramedics administered a single dose of rectal diazepam on the way, approximately 12 minutes ago. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 110, BP 100/60, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 37.2°C.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this particular patient’s case, his history of chronic alcohol abuse, homelessness, and likely impaired nutrition necessitates the administration of intravenous thiamine in the form of Pabrinex. Additionally, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given, and his blood glucose levels should be urgently checked.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:

      1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
      – Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
      – Administer oxygen
      – Assess cardiorespiratory function
      – Establish intravenous access

      2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
      – Implement regular monitoring
      – Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
      – Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
      – Perform emergency investigations
      – Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
      – Treat severe acidosis if present

      3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
      – Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
      – Notify the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
      – Identify and treat any medical complications
      – Consider pressor therapy when appropriate

      4th stage (30-90 minutes):
      – Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
      – Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
      – Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
      – Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy

      Emergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.

      Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 183 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the pills she takes for insomnia. She informs you that the pill she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She consumed the pills approximately 2 hours ago. She is currently experiencing tachycardia, with her most recent heart rate reading being 120 beats per minute. She weighs 65 kg. You administer a dose of propranolol, but there is no improvement in her condition.
      Which of the following treatments could now be given to support her cardiovascular system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose insulin – euglycaemic therapy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 184 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. Her urine output has dropped to 0.4 mL/kg/hour over the last 15 hours. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What stage of AKI does she have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 times the baseline). Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.

      Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 times the baseline), or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.

      In stage 3 AKI, there is a creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more times the baseline). Alternatively, a creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days, is indicative of stage 3 AKI. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine output) for 12 hours also falls under stage 3 AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 185 - A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset of facial weakness on one side that has occurred within the last 72 hours. You are considering the possible causes for this condition. What would assist in differentiating between an upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing

      Explanation:

      When there is damage to the facial nerve in the LMN, the patient will experience paralysis in the forehead and will be unable to wrinkle their brow. However, in an upper motor neuron lesion, the frontalis muscle is not affected, so the patient can still furrow their brow normally and their ability to close their eyes and blink is not affected. Lower motor neuron lesions affect the final part of the nerve pathway to all branches of the facial nerve, resulting in paralysis of the forehead and the rest of the face on that side. It is important to note that the speed of onset may provide some clues about the cause of the lesion, but it does not help determine the specific location of the damage.

      Further Reading:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.

      Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.

      When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.

      Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.

      Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 186 - A 30-year-old woman who is 15-weeks pregnant presents with bothersome hives after coming...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 15-weeks pregnant presents with bothersome hives after coming into contact with latex. The itching is extremely intense, and she is asking for something to alleviate the symptoms.
      Which of the following antihistamines is the most suitable to prescribe to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a common condition that causes a red, raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or spread out. Approximately 15% of people will experience urticaria at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with acute being more common.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals seeking treatment for urticaria should be offered a non-sedating antihistamine from the second-generation category. Examples of second-generation antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, and levocetirizine.

      It is no longer recommended to use conventional first-generation antihistamines like promethazine and chlorpheniramine for urticaria. These medications have short-lasting effects and can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects. They may also interfere with sleep, learning, and performance, as well as interact negatively with alcohol and other medications. In some cases, lethal overdoses have been reported. Terfenadine and astemizole should also be avoided as they can be harmful to the heart when combined with certain drugs like erythromycin and ketoconazole.

      It is advisable to avoid antihistamines during pregnancy if possible. There is a lack of systematic studies on their safety during pregnancy. However, if an antihistamine is necessary, chlorpheniramine is the recommended choice. For breastfeeding women, loratadine or cetirizine are preferred options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
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  • Question 187 - A 22 year old presents to the emergency department with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old presents to the emergency department with a complaint of hematemesis that started 30 minutes ago. The patient had a tonsillectomy 7 days ago. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 116/68 mmHg
      Pulse: 102 bpm
      Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      Temperature: 36.5ºC

      During examination, fresh clotted blood is visible in the right tonsillar fossa and there is profuse bleeding into the oropharynx. The patient's airway appears to be open. The ENT registrar has been informed and will arrive in approximately 10 minutes after finishing with a patient in the operating room. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apply adrenaline soaked dental roll to the bleeding point directing the pressure laterally

      Explanation:

      In patients who have undergone tonsillectomy and are experiencing severe bleeding, it is recommended to apply either Co-phenylcaine spray (a combination of lidocaine and phenylephrine) or 1:10,000 adrenaline soaked gauze/dental roll to the bleeding points. This helps to constrict the blood vessels and slow down the bleeding rate.

      To apply topical adrenaline, a dental roll or gauze soaked in 1:10,000 adrenaline solution is used. It is applied to the bleeding point using Magill’s forceps, with pressure directed laterally (not posteriorly). However, this may not be possible if the patient has a strong gag reflex. To minimize the risk of inhalation and facilitate suction, the patient’s head should be tilted to the side and/or forwards.

      For light or intermittent bleeding, hydrogen peroxide gargles can be used. However, they are not recommended for heavy bleeds.

      Further Reading:

      Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.

      Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.

      The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.

      Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.

      Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.

      If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 188 - You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple administrations of atropine, there has been no improvement in the patient's condition. Which two medications would be the most suitable options to consider next for treating this rhythm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline/Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline and isoprenaline are considered as second-line medications for the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine fails to improve the condition, transcutaneous pacing is recommended. However, if pacing is not available, the administration of second-line drugs becomes necessary. Adrenaline is typically given intravenously at a dosage of 2-10 mcg/minute, while isoprenaline is given at a dosage of 5 mcg/minute. It is important to note that glucagon is not mentioned as a treatment option for this patient’s bradycardia, as the cause of the condition is not specified as a beta-blocker overdose.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 189 - A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a syncopal episode. The patient reports several weeks of generalized weakness, muscle aches, and feeling dizzy when standing which has been gradually worsening. On examination, you note pigmented areas on the lips, tongue, and gums with patches of vitiligo around the hands and wrists. Observation and blood test results are shown below:

      Hb 132 g/l
      Platelets 124 * 109/l
      WBC 8.0 * 109/l
      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 µmol/l
      Glucose 3.1 mmol/l

      Blood pressure 94/56 mmHg
      Pulse 102 bpm
      Respirations 18 bpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms over several weeks, although it can sometimes occur suddenly. The diagnosis of Addison’s disease can be challenging as its symptoms, such as fatigue, muscle pain, weight loss, and nausea, are non-specific. However, a key feature is low blood pressure. The disease is associated with changes in pigmentation, ranging from increased pigmentation due to elevated ACTH levels to the development of vitiligo caused by the autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.

      Patients with Addison’s disease often exhibit hyponatremia (low sodium levels) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). If the patient is dehydrated, this may be reflected in elevated urea and creatinine levels. While hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar levels) can occur in Addison’s disease, they are less common than hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

      In contrast, diabetes insipidus, characterized by normal or elevated sodium levels, does not cause pigmentation changes. Cushing’s syndrome, which results from excess steroid production, is almost the opposite of Addison’s disease, with hypertension (high blood pressure) and hypokalemia (low potassium levels) being typical symptoms. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with episodes of high blood pressure and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 190 - You are requested to assess a 52-year-old individual who has experienced cyanosis and...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 52-year-old individual who has experienced cyanosis and a severe headache after receiving a local anesthetic injection for a regional block. The junior doctor is currently collecting a venous blood sample for analysis. What would be the most suitable course of treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylene blue 1-2 mg/kg over 5 mins

      Explanation:

      If a patient is critically ill and shows symptoms highly indicative of methemoglobinemia, treatment may be started before the blood results are available.

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 191 - A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be normal at 118/72 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.

      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioimmunoassay for urinary/plasma metanephrines

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is hypertension, which can be either sustained or paroxysmal. Other symptoms tend to be intermittent and can occur frequently or infrequently. As the disease progresses, these symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      In addition to hypertension, patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience the following clinical features: headache, profuse sweating, palpitations or rapid heartbeat, tremors, fever, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and panic attacks, a sense of impending doom, epigastric or flank pain, constipation, hypertensive retinopathy, postural hypotension due to volume contraction, cardiomyopathy, and café au lait spots.

      To confirm a suspected diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, elevated levels of metanephrines (catecholamine metabolites) can be measured in the blood or urine. This can be done through methods such as a 24-hour urine collection for free catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrines, high-performance liquid chromatography for catecholamines in plasma and/or urine, or radioimmunoassay (RIA) for urinary/plasma metanephrines.

      Once the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is biochemically confirmed, imaging methods can be used to locate the tumor. The first imaging modality to be used is a CT scan, which has an overall sensitivity of 89%. An MRI scan is the most sensitive modality for identifying the tumor, especially in cases of extra-adrenal tumors or metastatic disease, with an overall sensitivity of 98%. In cases where CT or MRI does not show a tumor, a nuclear medicine scan such as MIBG scintigraphy can be useful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 192 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only produced a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What is an example of an intrinsic renal cause of AKI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Kidney stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 193 - A 65-year-old woman with a significant smoking history and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a significant smoking history and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with suspected acute limb ischemia.
      What test should be ordered if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arteriography

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a partially blocked artery or an embolus from another part of the body. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without surgical intervention, the limb can experience extensive tissue necrosis within six hours.

      The typical signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps: constant and persistent pain, absence of pulses in the ankle, paleness or cyanosis of the limb, loss of power or paralysis, reduced sensation or numbness, and a sensation of coldness. The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is a sudden blockage of a previously narrowed artery (60% of cases). The second most common cause is an embolism (30%), which can originate from sources such as a blood clot in the heart or a prosthetic heart valve. It is important to differentiate between these two causes, as the treatment and prognosis differ.

      Other potential causes of acute limb ischaemia include trauma, Raynaud’s syndrome, iatrogenic injury, popliteal aneurysm, aortic dissection, and compartment syndrome. If acute limb ischaemia is suspected, it is crucial to seek immediate assessment by a vascular surgeon. Patients with suspected peripheral arterial disease should undergo an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurement. If there is uncertainty in the diagnosis, urgent arteriography may be necessary.

      The management of acute limb ischaemia in secondary care depends on factors such as the type and location of the blockage, duration of ischaemia, presence of other medical conditions, type of conduit (artery or graft), risks associated with treatment, and viability of the limb. Possible interventions include percutaneous catheter-directed thrombolytic therapy, surgical embolectomy, and endovascular revascularisation if the limb is still viable. If the limb is at immediate or marginal risk, the choice between surgical or endovascular techniques will depend on factors such as time to revascularisation and the severity of sensory and motor deficits. In cases where the limb is unsalvageable, amputation may be necessary to prevent further complications and potential multi organ damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 194 - You assess a limping adolescent with hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a limping adolescent with hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and a diagnosis of Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is confirmed.
      Which ONE statement about this condition is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It typically presents later in girls

      Explanation:

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), also referred to as slipped capital femoral epiphysis, is a rare but significant hip disorder that primarily affects children. It occurs when the growth plate slips at the epiphysis, causing the head of the femur to shift from its normal position on the femoral neck. Specifically, the femoral epiphysis remains in the acetabulum while the metaphysis moves forward and externally rotates.

      SUFE typically presents later in boys, usually between the ages of 10 and 17, compared to girls who typically experience it between 8 and 15 years of age. Several risk factors contribute to its development, including being male, being overweight, having immature skeletal maturity, having a positive family history, being of Pacific Island or African origin, having hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or hypogonadism.

      Patients with SUFE commonly experience hip pain and a limp. In severe cases, a leg length discrepancy may be noticeable. While the condition may not be immediately apparent on an anteroposterior (AP) film, it is usually detectable on a frog-leg lateral film. A diagnostic sign is the failure of a line drawn up the lateral edge of the femoral neck (known as the line of Klein) to intersect the epiphysis during the acute stage, also known as Trethowan’s sign.

      Surgical pinning is the most common treatment for SUFE. In approximately 20% of cases, bilateral SUFE occurs, prompting some surgeons to recommend prophylactic pinning of the unaffected hip. If a significant deformity is present, osteotomies or even arthroplasty may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 195 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right eye. Upon fundoscopy, you observe a section of sensory retina protruding towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is confirmed.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A retina which remains fixed at six months post-surgical repair is unlikely to become detached again

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 196 - A 25-year-old man comes in with a complaint of headache, fever, and growing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in with a complaint of headache, fever, and growing drowsiness. He recently had a flu-like illness but his condition worsened this morning, prompting his partner to call for the GP. He exhibits significant neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. During the examination, you observe a petechial rash on his abdomen.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 197 - A 55-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. While examining his cranial nerves, you also note that his tongue is deviated to the right-hand side. CT and MRI head scans are undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a right-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of branches of the anterior spinal artery leads to the development of the medial medullary syndrome. This condition is characterized by several distinct symptoms. Firstly, there is contralateral hemiplegia, which occurs due to damage to the pyramidal tracts. Additionally, there is contralateral loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch, resulting from damage to the medial lemniscus. Lastly, there is ipsilateral deviation and paralysis of the tongue, which is caused by damage to the hypoglossal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 198 - You review a child with a history of autism who is currently experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with a history of autism who is currently experiencing severe communication difficulties. You attempt to engage in conversation with the child but find it challenging to comprehend their speech. Their language lacks coherence and seems to consist of random words and phrases.
      Which ONE of the following communication disorders is the child displaying?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Word salad

      Explanation:

      A word salad refers to a jumbled or incomprehensible combination of seemingly arbitrary words and phrases. This phenomenon is frequently observed in individuals with schizophrenia and dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 199 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a headache, fever and increasing fatigue. He has had a recent flu-like illness but deteriorated this morning. He has marked neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. On examination, you note a petechial rash on his abdomen.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis group B

      Explanation:

      This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 200 - A 72 year old female comes to the emergency department with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old female comes to the emergency department with a complaint of dizziness when she changes positions. The patient states that the symptoms began today upon getting out of bed. She describes the episodes as a sensation of the room spinning and they typically last for about half a minute. The patient also mentions feeling nauseous during these episodes. There is no reported hearing impairment or ringing in the ears.

      What test findings would be anticipated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Dix-Hallpike

      Explanation:

      The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is the primary diagnostic test used for patients suspected of having benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). If a patient exhibits nystagmus and vertigo during the test, it is considered a positive result for BPPV. Other special clinical tests that may be used to assess vertigo include Romberg’s test, which helps identify instability of either peripheral or central origin but is not very effective in differentiating between the two. The head impulse test is used to detect unilateral hypofunction of the peripheral vestibular system and can help distinguish between cerebellar infarction and vestibular neuronitis. Unterberger’s test is used to identify dysfunction in one of the labyrinths. Lastly, the alternate cover test can indicate an increased likelihood of stroke in individuals with acute vestibular syndrome if the result is abnormal.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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