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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of persistent nasal discharge on his right side and facial pressure that worsens when he bends forward. He frequently breathes through his mouth because his nose is obstructed. He has a history of asthma and has been smoking for 6 pack-years.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Referral to ENT
Explanation:Unilateral symptoms should raise concern for patients with chronic rhinosinusitis. The typical presentation includes facial pain, frontal pressure worsened by bending forward, clear nasal discharge (if due to allergies), and difficulty breathing through the nose. Post-nasal drip may also cause a chronic cough. However, if the symptoms are only on one side, it is considered a red flag and warrants a referral to an ENT specialist. The standard management for chronic sinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and irrigating the nasal passages with saline solution. Loratadine may be helpful if the cause is related to allergies.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals that he has been experiencing a mouth ulcer for about 3 weeks. It started as a small painless sore but has now grown in size and is causing him discomfort. Despite trying various mouthwashes, he has not found any relief. He is in good health and has no other symptoms. Although he is not overly concerned about the ulcer, he would like you to prescribe something to help it heal.
Upon examination, you notice a 4mm ulcer in his oral cavity, surrounded by a white plaque. There is no lymphadenopathy.
How would you approach the management of this patient?Your Answer: Refer routinely to ENT
Correct Answer: Refer urgently (for an appointment within 2 weeks) to ENT
Explanation:If a person has had a mouth ulcer for more than three weeks, it is important to refer them to secondary care urgently. In cases where there is unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. This is also true for patients with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia, who should be urgently referred for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist within two weeks. In this particular case, the patient with a solitary ulcer for more than three weeks should be seen by an ENT specialist within two weeks.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman complains of hearing difficulties over the last six months. She initially suspected it was due to earwax, but her hearing has not improved after ear syringing. You conduct an auditory system examination, including Rinne's and Weber's tests:
Rinne's test: Left ear: air conduction > bone conduction
Right ear: air conduction > bone conduction
Weber's test: Lateralises to the left side
What is the significance of these test results?Your Answer: Right sensorineural deafness
Explanation:If there is a sensorineural issue, the sound in Weber’s test will be perceived on the healthy side (left), suggesting a problem on the affected side (right).
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate?
Your Answer: The peak incidence is 10-20 years
Explanation:Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?Your Answer: Four weeks of pain and an inability to eat solid food
Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.
Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.
Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.
Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.
Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.
Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on the right side for the past two months. He reports that it is now affecting his sleep. He denies any episodes of bleeding but has been experiencing postnasal drip. Upon examination, you observe a polyp on the right side and inflamed mucosa on both sides. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Start saline douche and intranasal steroid and review in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:A unilateral nasal polyp is a concerning symptom that requires immediate attention. While bilateral polyps are typically associated with rhinosinusitis, a unilateral polyp may indicate the presence of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
In cases where small bilateral nasal polyps are present, primary care treatment may involve saline nasal douching and intranasal steroids. However, if the polyps are causing significant obstruction, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient comes in for a follow-up appointment one week after being prescribed a combination antibiotic and steroid spray for otitis externa. Despite the medication, her symptoms have not improved and the redness has spread to her ear. What is the recommended course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:When the erythema spreads, it is a sign that oral antibiotics are necessary. The preferred initial treatment is Flucloxacillin.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male surfer from Australia presents with recurrent ear infections. He has recently moved to the US and is generally healthy. The patient complains of difficulty in removing water from his ears after a shower and left ear discomfort. Upon examination, there appears to be an object protruding into the canal in the left ear, obstructing a clear view of the tympanic membrane. The right tympanic membrane appears normal, and there is no inflammation in either canal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Foreign body
Correct Answer: Exostosis (Surfer's ear)
Explanation:The bony protrusion observed in the left ear canal is known as an exostosis or a bone prominence. Although spending a lot of time in water may increase the risk of otitis externa, the patient doesn’t exhibit the typical signs of inflamed canals or debris. Cholesteatoma, which is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and an abnormality in the attic, is also ruled out as it is not evident on examination. Wax or foreign body are not considered as they were not found during the examination.
Surfer’s Ear: A Condition Caused by Repeated Exposure to Cold Water
Surfer’s ear, also known as exostosis, is a condition that occurs as a result of repeated exposure to cold water. This condition is commonly seen in surfers, divers, and kayakers, and is more prevalent in countries such as New Zealand and the USA. However, cases have also been reported in some areas of the United Kingdom, such as Cornwall. Patients with surfer’s ear may experience recurrent ear infections, reduced hearing, and water plugging.
Surfer’s ear is a progressive condition, and it is essential to take preventative measures to avoid repeated exposure. Wearing hoods, ear plugs, or swim caps can help to protect the ears from cold water. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the bony growths that have developed in the ear canal. By taking the necessary precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of developing surfer’s ear and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with an obvious broken nose and an inability to breathe through either nostril. Examination reveals a cherry-red swelling in both nasal airways.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review immediately for examination under anaesthetic
Explanation:This patient has a condition called septal hematoma, which can lead to a hole in the septum if not treated promptly. This happens because the hematoma restricts blood flow to the cartilage and can become infected. To diagnose this condition, a doctor will use a nasal speculum or otoscope to look for asymmetry and swelling in the septum. They may also need to feel the septum with a gloved finger. Septal hematoma is usually caused by significant facial trauma in adults, but even minor nasal trauma can cause it in children. If a child has this condition, it may be a sign of abuse. Immediate drainage under anesthesia is necessary to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has had a fever for five to six days. He is well, drinking fluids, not vomiting, and passing urine normally.
On examination, he is alert, well hydrated with no photophobia or neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.7°C, HR 140, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. His chest is clear.
He has generalised blanching macular rash and bilateral conjunctival injection. His lips are dry and chapped, tonsils are erythematous with no exudate. His eardrums look normal and he has moderate cervical lymphadenopathy. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and leucocytes.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give penicillin V, take throat swab and send home with worsening advice
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the UK. Although its prevalence is low, the risk of complications is high due to late diagnosis. As such, it is important to have a good understanding of the disease, which may be tested in the AKT exam.
The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, but it is believed to be due to a microbiological toxin. If left untreated, it can lead to coronary aneurysms. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, consider it in children with fever lasting over five days and who have four of the following five features: bilateral conjunctival injection, change in mucous membranes in the upper respiratory tract, change in the extremities, polymorphous rash, or cervical lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, incomplete or atypical Kawasaki disease may be diagnosed with fewer features.
To help remember the features of Kawasaki disease, think All Red + Cervical Lymphadenopathy. This stands for red eyes, red mouth, red rash, red hands, and cervical lymphadenopathy. By being aware of these symptoms, healthcare professionals can diagnose and treat Kawasaki disease promptly, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of constant snoring and seems to ‘talk through her nose.’ Her nose seems clear on anterior examination.
What is the most appropriate management intervention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A period of watchful waiting
Explanation:Management of Enlarged Adenoids in Children
Explanation:
Enlarged adenoids are a common condition in children, which usually resolve on their own by the age of eight years. In cases where there is no history of sleep apnea or significant impairment of hearing or speech, a period of watchful waiting for six months or longer is appropriate. Nasal corticosteroids are not effective in treating enlarged adenoids as they do not affect the postnasal space. Adenoidectomy may be considered if the problem persists despite the waiting period. Tonsillectomy is not necessary unless there are frequent throat infections. The use of an albuterol inhaler is not recommended as there is no indication of asthma in the child. Overall, careful monitoring and appropriate intervention can effectively manage enlarged adenoids in children. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a 4-day history of febrile temperatures and intermittent earache. Examination reveals unilateral otitis media and a bulging drum. The child has no known allergies.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Treatment of Acute Otitis Media: Antibiotic Guidelines
Acute otitis media (AOM) is a common childhood infection that often resolves without antibiotic treatment. However, in certain cases, antibiotics may be necessary to prevent serious complications. The following guidelines outline appropriate antibiotic treatment for AOM.
When to Consider Antibiotics:
Antibiotics may be considered after 72 hours if there is no improvement, or earlier if the child is systemically unwell, at high risk of complications, or under two years of age with bilateral otitis media.First-Line Antibiotics:
Amoxicillin is the preferred first-line antibiotic for AOM, as it is effective against the most common bacterial pathogens involved in the infection.Alternative Antibiotics:
Erythromycin or clarithromycin may be used for individuals who cannot take penicillin, but they are less effective against Haemophilus influenza.Second-Line Antibiotics:
Co-amoxiclav and azithromycin should be reserved for individuals who have not responded to first-line antibiotics. However, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided when narrow-spectrum drugs are likely to be effective, as they increase the risk of Clostridioides difficile and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.Why Azithromycin is Not Recommended as First-Line:
Azithromycin is not recommended as a first-line antibiotic due to its long half-life, which increases the risk of developing antibiotic resistance.In summary, appropriate antibiotic treatment for AOM depends on the severity of the infection and the individual’s ability to tolerate certain antibiotics. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively treat AOM while minimizing the risk of complications and antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of their tongue, as well as rapid changes in its color. Upon examination, you observe multiple irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of their tongue. The patient is anxious about these changes and seeks your advice.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions and Their Symptoms
Geographic tongue is a common oral condition that presents with mild burning and irritation of the tongue. It is characterized by single or multiple well-demarcated irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of the tongue. Stress and spicy food may exacerbate the condition.
Angular chelitis, on the other hand, presents with irritation of the corners of the lips and dryness. Aphthous stomatitis describes solitary or multiple painful ulcers on the mucosal membranes. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an asymptomatic white thickening and accentuation of the folds of the lateral margins of the tongue.
Lastly, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis presents with punched-out ulcers, necrosis, and bleeding of areas between teeth. It is important to be aware of these common oral conditions and their symptoms to seek appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought him to the clinic as earlier today he noticed a small amount of bright red bleeding from his mouth. He is otherwise recovering well and has been eating and drinking normally.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ENT for assessment
Explanation:If a patient experiences bleeding after a tonsillectomy, it is important to seek urgent assessment from the operating team. While simple analgesia may be appropriate for those experiencing only pain, the presence of bleeding requires immediate attention. Prescribing oral antibiotics in the community would not be appropriate in this context, and techniques such as silver nitrate cautery should only be performed by a specialist after a thorough assessment.
Complications after Tonsillectomy
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.
Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.
Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with classic symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) and is concerned about the likelihood of recurrence. He reports multiple episodes of the room spinning when he moves his head, lasting 30 seconds to 1 minute. You explain that while symptoms often resolve without treatment over several weeks, the Epley manoeuvre can be offered to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is a driver, is disabled by his symptoms and would like to know the chances of recurrence over the next 3-5 years.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Approximately 50% of individuals diagnosed with BPPV will experience a relapse of symptoms within 3 to 5 years.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.
Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.
What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review
Explanation:Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.
There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.
Understanding Gingivitis and its Management
Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.
For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.
It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.
What is your next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist
Explanation:Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are a primary care physician seeing a 2-year-old girl with her mother. The mother reports that over the past 48 hours, her daughter has had intermittent fevers (up to 37.5ºC) and has been fussy. However, she has been eating and drinking normally.
The mother has also noticed that her daughter has been tugging at her right ear.
Upon examination, the child appears comfortable, and the following vital signs are noted:
Temperature 37.2ºC
Heart rate 105 beats/min
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
Upon otoscopy, you observe a small perforation in the right tympanic membrane with a small amount of discharge present in the external ear canal. The left tympanic membrane appears normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on the information provided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of amoxicillin
Explanation:In cases of acute otitis media with perforation, oral antibiotics should be prescribed. The recommended course of treatment is a 7-day course of amoxicillin. While most cases of otitis media resolve on their own with simple analgesia, antibiotics may be necessary in certain situations, such as bilateral infection in children under 2, otorrhoea, perforated tympanic membrane, and symptoms that do not improve after 3 days. In this case, the patient has ongoing and bilateral infection with on and off fevers for 3 days, making a 7-day course of amoxicillin the most appropriate option. Tympanic membrane perforations usually heal within 4-8 weeks, and it is good practice to re-examine them after a few weeks to ensure healing. However, this should be done earlier than 12-16 weeks. Tympanic membrane perforation is a common complication of otitis media and can usually be managed in the community without the need for discussion with ENT. Otomize, which contains aminoglycosides that are ototoxic, should not be used in cases of otitis media with perforation.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8
Explanation:Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.
Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.
While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain for the past two days. Upon waking up today, she noticed that her face was drooping on the left side and she was unable to fully close her left eye. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a diagnosis of Bell's Palsy. If you were to ask the patient to raise her left eyebrow, what would you expect to find and why?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell's palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old factory machine operator is seen with recent onset hearing difficulties. He has had a hearing test done via a private company and has brought the result of his pure tone audiometry in to show you.
Which of the following audiogram findings would most suggest he has early noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A notch of hearing loss between 3 and 6 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies
Explanation:Patterns of Hearing Loss Revealed by Pure Tone Audiometry
Pure tone audiometry is a valuable tool for identifying patterns of hearing loss. A normal individual will have hearing thresholds above 20 dBHL across all frequencies. Meniere’s disease typically shows hearing loss at lower frequencies, while presbyacusis often presents with high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern.
Early noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is usually characterized by a notch between 3 and 6 kHz, with recovery at higher frequencies. If presbyacusis is also present, the notch may be less prominent and appear more like a ‘bulge.’ NIHL is typically bilateral, but it can occur unilaterally in activities such as shooting. As NIHL progresses, the notch seen in early disease may disappear, and there may be increasing hearing loss at all frequencies, most notably at higher frequencies, which can sometimes be difficult to differentiate from presbyacusis.
In summary, pure tone audiometry can reveal various patterns of hearing loss, which can aid in the diagnosis and management of different types of hearing disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in his right ear. He reports that this occurred over the course of a few hours yesterday and has not improved since. He denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history or prior ear issues. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the ear canal or tympanic membrane. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for an audiological assessment
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Sudden or Rapidly Worsening Hearing Loss in Adults
Adults who experience sudden onset or rapidly worsening hearing loss in one or both ears, which cannot be explained by external or middle ear causes, require referral to an ENT or audiovestibular medicine service. The speed at which this referral needs to occur is outlined in NICE guidance. If the loss occurred suddenly within the past 30 days, immediate referral to be seen within 24 hours is necessary. For sudden hearing loss that occurred more than 30 days ago, urgent referral to be seen within 2 weeks is appropriate. Rapid hearing loss over a period of 4 to 90 days also requires urgent referral. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management of hearing loss in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical
Explanation:Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters
Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.
What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings
Explanation:Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Ramsey Hunt syndrome
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week wait to ENT for suspected cancer
Explanation:If an adult presents with unilateral middle ear effusion, it could be a sign of nasopharyngeal cancer. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to refer the patient for an urgent 2-week wait ENT appointment to investigate the possibility of cancer. This is especially important if the patient is of East Asian origin and the effusion is not related to an upper respiratory tract infection. Other options, such as arranging a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses, do not address the urgent need to rule out cancer and should not be done in primary care. Further investigations, such as nasal endoscopy or MRI, may be arranged by the specialist to confirm or rule out the possibility of nasopharyngeal cancer.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing, as evidenced by blood on the toothbrush and on spitting out during tooth brushing. There is no pain, lymphadenopathy, fever, or other systemic manifestation of disease. On examination of the teeth and gums, reddened, mild-to-moderately swollen gingivae are observed throughout the mouth.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gingivitis
Explanation:Understanding Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease
Gingivitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gums, often caused by dental plaque. If left untreated, it can progress to periodontitis, which affects the ligaments and bone supporting the teeth. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene, smoking, and diabetes. Treatment involves managing oral hygiene and using antiseptic mouthwashes, but it’s important to see a dentist for proper care.
Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis, also known as Vincent’s disease, is a painful form of gingivitis that can cause ulcers and bleeding. It’s caused by bacteria already present in the mouth and can be treated with antibiotics.
Periodontal disease is a common problem in HIV-infected patients and can present as necrotising ulcerative periodontitis or linear gingival erythema. These conditions can occur even in clean mouths with little plaque or tartar.
Bleeding gums can also be a symptom of leukaemia and platelet disorders. It’s important to seek medical attention if you experience persistent bleeding or other oral health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father. The child recently had an ear infection and his father is concerned that his child may have reduced hearing. There are no signs of inflammation or discharge on examination of the ears, but the GP suspects that the child may have otitis media with effusion (glue ear). His childhood development, including speech and language development, has been normal.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No active treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Otitis Media with Effusion in Children
Otitis media with effusion is a common condition in children, but it is usually self-limiting and resolves within 12 months. While there is no proven benefit from medication, there are several treatment options available.
Observation is a viable option, as a period of watchful waiting is unlikely to result in any long-term complications. However, if signs and symptoms persist, referral for a hearing test after 6-12 weeks or to a specialist in ear, nose, and throat (ENT) may be necessary.
Antibiotics are not indicated in cases where there are no symptoms or signs of active infection. Intranasal corticosteroids and oral antihistamines are also not recommended by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of otitis media with effusion in children.
Nasal decongestants, such as pseudoephedrine, may provide temporary relief for stuffy nose and sinus pain/pressure caused by infection or other breathing illnesses, but they are not indicated for children with glue ear.
In summary, the best course of action for otitis media with effusion in children is often observation, with referral to a specialist if necessary. Other treatment options should be carefully considered and discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with headache.
Select from the list below the single feature that would suggest frontal sinusitis rather than migraine.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Green nasal discharge
Explanation:Migraine vs Sinus Headache: Understanding the Difference
Many people who believe they are suffering from a sinus headache may actually be experiencing a migraine. This is because migraines can activate the trigeminal nerves, which are responsible for both the sinus region and the meninges. As a result, it can be difficult to determine the exact source of the pain. In addition, migraines can cause nasal congestion, as well as lacrimation and rhinorrhoea due to autonomic nerve stimulation. Unlike sinusitis, which often presents with thick green nasal discharge, migraines tend to be recurrent and may not have a clear history of sinusitis. Understanding the difference between these two conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for hearing loss, which were arranged by another physician in the same practice. He works as a construction worker and attributes his hearing difficulties to years of exposure to loud machinery. He has no significant medical history.
Upon further questioning, he reports that his hearing loss and tinnitus only affect his left ear, while his right ear seems normal. The problem has been gradually worsening over the past six months. The hearing test confirms no hearing loss affecting the right ear.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contrast MRI brain
Explanation:Consider Acoustic Neuroma in Patients with Unilateral Hearing Loss and Tinnitus
Whilst acoustic neuroma is a rare condition, it should be considered in patients who present with unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, especially if the other ear appears unaffected. A contrast MRI brain is the most appropriate next step to confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
In contrast to Ménière’s disease, which is a possible differential diagnosis but usually not associated with unilateral signs, symptoms of vertigo are not prominent in acoustic neuroma. Therefore, trials of vestibular suppressants such as betahistine are ineffective, and prochlorperazine is not recommended.
It is important to note that hearing loss in acoustic neuroma is progressive, and choosing a hearing aid option may delay intervention. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.
During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment
Explanation:If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.
If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.
Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.
If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.
If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.
Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma
Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.
Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker presents with a persistent hoarse voice for the past three to four weeks. He saw a colleague two weeks ago who found nothing focal on examination and advised him to seek review if his hoarseness did not settle after a further week. He has no significant past medical history, is not on any regular medication, and has no known drug allergies. He denies any cough, haemoptysis, swallowing problems, weight loss, or any systemic unwellness. Clinical examination reveals no anaemia, clubbing, lymphadenopathy or neck masses. His chest sounds clear, and an urgent chest x-ray is reported as 'normal'. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer: The Case of a Persisting Hoarse Voice
The NICE guidelines on recognizing and referring suspected cancer do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms. However, most references suggest that further action should be taken if hoarseness persists for three or more weeks. This could indicate a laryngeal cancer or a lung tumor that has infiltrated the recurrent laryngeal nerve. In such cases, an urgent chest x-ray may help direct referral.
If the chest x-ray is normal, urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist is needed to investigate the persisting hoarse voice. However, if the chest x-ray is abnormal and suggestive of lung malignancy, urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist is warranted.
In summary, recognizing and referring suspected cancer is crucial in cases of persisting hoarseness. While the NICE guidelines do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms, most references suggest that three or more weeks of hoarseness warrants further action. A normal chest x-ray requires urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist, while an abnormal chest x-ray warrants urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine). Is there any medication that would make Sudafed use inappropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Explanation:The combination of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and pseudoephedrine may lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is recorded at 38.5ºC, and his right eardrum appears red and bulging. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment without antibiotics, guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case.
While erythromycin is a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. It is particularly useful as a syrup for children due to its lower cost compared to other alternatives.
Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media.
For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg three times a day for seven days.
Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective and is not typically used as a first-line treatment according to current guidelines.
References: NICE Guidelines, Clinical Knowledge Summaries
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the past month complaining of a severe sore throat. He has been prescribed a course of co-amoxiclav by your partner for suspected tonsillitis, but tells you this has had no impact on his symptoms. According to his records he has always had large tonsils and has been seen at the surgery for a number of episodes of tonsillitis over the past few years.
On examination his temperature is 37.7°C, pulse is 70 bpm and regular, BP is 122/82 mmHg. There is some cervical lymphadenopathy. There is a large erythematous nodule on the right hand side of the tonsillar bed.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral for tonsillectomy
Explanation:Unilateral Tonsillar Enlargement: A Red Flag for Tonsillar Lymphoma
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is a concerning symptom that may indicate tonsillar lymphoma. Delaying referral to an ENT specialist for biopsy can be detrimental to the patient’s health. Antibiotic therapy may not be effective in treating malignancy, and failure to respond to antibiotics may indicate underlying cancer. Patients with a history of smoking and alcohol consumption are at higher risk of tonsillar cancer, while those with recurrent tonsillitis may be more prone to tonsillar lymphoma.
Other diagnostic options, such as full blood count and viscosity, may not be abnormal in early lymphoma, and non-urgent referral can cause a delay of several weeks before review by an ENT specialist. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly refer patients with unilateral tonsillar enlargement to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
The British Journal of General Practice (BJGP) published an article in November 2014 that provides a helpful table outlining the differences between acute tonsillitis and oropharyngeal carcinoma. This information can aid in the accurate diagnosis of tonsillar enlargement and prevent misdiagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apthous ulcers
Explanation:There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy has a unilateral nasal discharge and a foreign body is seen on that side in the anterior part of the nasal cavity.
Select from the list the management option that is LEAST APPROPRIATE.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Await spontaneous expulsion
Explanation:Nasal Foreign Bodies: Risks, Complications, and Removal Techniques
Nasal foreign bodies are a common occurrence, but they should not be taken lightly. Bleeding is the most common complication, but inflammation, mucosal damage, extension into adjacent structures, and infection can also occur. In severe cases, a foreign body can accidentally be aspirated, leading to acute respiratory obstruction. Additionally, foreign bodies in the nose can carry causative organisms of infectious diseases. Therefore, spontaneous expulsion should not be anticipated, and urgent ENT referral may be necessary.
Successful removal of a nasal foreign body requires a cooperative patient and a doctor experienced and confident in the removal technique. Several methods are available, including blowing positive pressure through the nose, using forceps or suction, and passing a balloon catheter. The choice of method depends on the type of foreign body and the doctor’s comfort level.
It is important to note that small button batteries should be removed immediately as they can cause local necrosis if they leak. Topical anaesthetic and vasoconstrictor may be helpful in the removal process. In cases where the patient is uncooperative or the foreign body is in a posterior position, urgent ENT referral is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.
During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ºC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms
Explanation:This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been ongoing for 5 days. He reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. The patient is in good health overall and experiences nausea but no hearing loss or tinnitus. During the examination, the doctor observes fine horizontal nystagmus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:If there is no hearing loss, it is more likely that the patient has vestibular neuronitis rather than viral labyrinthitis.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with a 39-year old male patient who has paralysis on the left-hand side of his face. It started 2 days ago with left sided facial and ear pain. The pain is now very severe and causing him considerable discomfort. He is unable to move his left forehead, close the left eye or move the left-hand side of his mouth. He is normally fit and well.
You suspect that he has a Bell's palsy and arrange to see him in your clinic that afternoon to examine him.
Which statement below regarding Bell's palsy is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a patient with a Bell's palsy, severe pain might indicate Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:Severe pain in a patient with Bell’s palsy may be a sign of Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which is caused by herpes zoster and is accompanied by a painful rash and herpetic vesicles. Urgent referral to ENT is necessary if the facial paralysis has not improved after one month. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur but doesn’t require urgent referral. Referral to a plastic surgeon with expertise in facial reconstructive surgery should be considered if there is residual paralysis after 6-9 months. Corticosteroid treatment is recommended as it has been shown to improve prognosis based on evidence from meta-analyses, while antiviral treatments are not recommended alone or in combination with prednisolone.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss over the last 2-3 years. No other symptoms are reported. She works as a machinist in a factory manufacturing clothing. She has a family history of hearing loss at a young age. She has an 18 month old son who has no hearing difficulties.
Examination of the ears reveals normal tympanic membranes both sides.
She has had a hearing test done privately and the audiogram shows bilateral hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and Other Hearing Loss Conditions
Otosclerosis is a condition where bone growth occurs in the middle ear, leading to the fixation of the foot plate of the stapes bone and resulting in conductive hearing loss in young adults. This condition is often accelerated during pregnancy and may have a family history. Treatment options include surgery or a hearing aid. Audiometry typically shows hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
In contrast, presbyacusis is characterized by high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern, while noise-induced hearing loss shows a dip at 4 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies. Acoustic neuroma typically shows high frequency loss and is usually unilateral, while Meniere’s disease can produce low frequency hearing loss along with attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Understanding the different patterns of hearing loss can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that his surroundings are spinning when he moves his head. This has been occurring for the last 2 weeks and the episodes last approximately 30 seconds. He has hypertension but no other past medical history. He had a viral illness 3 weeks ago. You believe the history is consistent with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
Which statement is correct regarding BPPV?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BPPV often has a relapsing and remitting course
Explanation:BPPV can have a recurrent pattern of symptoms that come and go. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used, which can trigger vertigo and a specific type of eye movement called torsional upbeating nystagmus. Treatment for BPPV includes the Epley maneuver and Brandt-Daroff exercises, but medication is typically not effective. While many people recover from BPPV within a few weeks, symptoms can persist and return over time.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 42
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old man who reports an acute onset of reduced hearing in his left ear. This started suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well with no ear pain, fevers or systemic upset. Examination of ears and cranial nerves were unremarkable.
Which is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call ENT team
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Managing Sudden Hearing Loss in Adults
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in June 2018 to provide recommendations on managing sudden or rapid onset hearing loss in adults. This type of hearing loss is not explained by external or middle ear causes.
According to the guidelines, an immediate referral is recommended if the hearing loss developed suddenly within the past 30 days. If the hearing loss developed suddenly but it has been over 30 days or if it worsened rapidly, a two-week wait referral is advised. The guidelines also provide further recommendations if there are additional symptoms or signs such as facial droop.
It is important to note that NICE defines sudden hearing loss as within 3 days and rapid worsening as 4-90 days. These guidelines aim to improve the management and treatment of sudden hearing loss in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of unilateral hearing loss accompanied by otalgia and otorrhoea in the affected ear. He reports feeling otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the ear canal is red and inflamed, but patent, and there is discharge present, indicating an infection. The external ear and mastoid appear normal, and there are no abnormalities detected in the throat or neck. The patient is worried as he is immunocompromised due to treatment for multiple sclerosis.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer routinely to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Management of an Immunocompromised Patient with Signs of Infection
In managing an immunocompromised patient with signs of infection, it is important to consider the potential risk of deterioration related to the infection. According to NICE guidelines, the most appropriate approach would be to start appropriate treatment and arrange a review appointment in 3 days. This allows for monitoring of treatment response and early detection of any potential complications.
If the patient doesn’t respond to treatment, immediate referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient’s condition and ensure prompt action is taken if necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage immunocompromised patients with signs of infection and minimize the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents with severe right-sided ear pain, muffled hearing, and watery discharge for the past 3 days. The patient also reports intense itching in the affected ear. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane is intact, but the external auditory canal is inflamed, red, and swollen with purulent debris and wax. Pulling the pinna causes the patient significant pain. The mastoid process is normal and not tender to palpation. Rinne's and Weber's tests confirm conductive hearing loss. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic + a topical steroid for 1-2 weeks
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team
Explanation:Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.
When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery
Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.
Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to you complaining of bilateral sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itching. He reports experiencing these symptoms at this time of year for the past few years, but this year they are worse and are interfering with his college attendance. He has no trouble breathing, no other medical issues, and takes no regular medications. His mother suggested he try putting vaseline around his nose, and he has taken some cetirizine, but it has not been effective thus far.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal fluticasone furoate and continue regular antihistamine
Explanation:For individuals with moderate-to-severe or persistent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, intranasal steroids are the recommended first-line treatment. They have been found to be more effective than oral antihistamines. Combining intranasal steroids with oral antihistamines can provide even better results.
If a person experiences persistent watery rhinorrhea despite using both intranasal steroids and oral antihistamines, an intranasal anticholinergic like ipratropium bromide can be added to the treatment plan.
In cases where symptoms are severe and significantly impacting quality of life despite optimal treatment, a short course of oral steroids may be considered. However, this should only be used for important life events.
If symptoms remain uncontrolled despite optimal management, immunotherapy may be considered as a future option.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is presented by his father with bilateral earache. The child has been experiencing this for the past week despite taking regular paracetamol and neurofen.
During the examination, the child's temperature is recorded at 39.2ºC. His pulse rate is 130 beats per minute and both ears show congested, red, and bulging tympanic membranes.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:For most cases of acute otitis media, it is recommended to avoid or delay the use of antibiotics. However, a prescription may be necessary for individuals who are systemically unwell, have co-morbidities that put them at high-risk, experience ongoing symptoms for at least 4 days without improvement, children under 2 years old with bilateral otitis media, or those with perforation and/or discharge in the ear canal. Amoxicillin is the preferred first-line drug, while acetic acid spray, otomize spray, and flucloxacillin can be used for otitis externa. Although symptoms should typically be monitored, this patient meets some of the criteria for antibiotic prescription.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents for follow up of his hoarse voice, which he first noticed after attending a family gathering a month ago. Initially, a viral infection was suspected and he was given symptomatic advice. However, he reports that there has been no improvement in his symptoms and his voice remains hoarse. He quit smoking over 30 years ago and only drinks occasionally. He denies any cough or recent illness. His weight is stable and he has not experienced any hemoptysis. On examination, his ears, nose, and throat appear normal, as does his chest. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Management of Persistent Hoarse Voice
A persistent hoarse voice for over three weeks is a ‘red flag’ presentation and should prompt urgent action to investigate for a suspected cancer, such as laryngeal or lung cancer. Risk factors such as smoking history and alcohol history are important to consider but would not alter your management plan.
NICE guidance on this changed slightly with the release of NG12. NICE advises that you should consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for laryngeal cancer in people aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness.
It is important to note that a normal basic examination is not sufficient to rule out a sinister underlying cause. Hoarseness can also be caused by pulmonary pathology, and if you have any suspicions that this may be the case, you should arrange an urgent chest x-ray.
In summary, a persistent hoarse voice should be taken seriously and investigated promptly to rule out any potential underlying cancer or pulmonary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 50
Incorrect
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During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results were obtained:
Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
Weber's test: Localises to the left side
What do these test results indicate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness
Explanation:If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman of Chinese origin presents to you in surgery to discuss her recurrent nosebleeds. They started 3 months ago and have been occurring unprovoked with increasing frequency. She is not on any anticoagulants, has never had any previous episodes of unexplained or excessive bleeding, and has no family history of any bleeding disorders. On further questioning, the nosebleeds always seem to be from the right nostril which feels a bit blocked. She has tried 2 weeks of Naseptin (chlorhexidine dihydrochloride and neomycin sulfate nasal cream) with no change in her symptoms. She mentions that the previous GP she saw asked about weight loss which she denied at the time, however, she volunteers that she has been tightening her belt more now. Blood tests reveal normal coagulation screen, haemoglobin within the normal range and a thrombocytosis. What condition is it most important to investigate for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal cancer
Explanation:The NICE guidelines advise referring patients with recurrent epistaxis and a high risk of underlying disorders to ear, nose and throat for investigation. This patient, who is of Chinese origin and has recurrent nosebleeds, nasal obstruction, and weight loss, is at high risk of nasopharyngeal cancer due to his ethnicity and age. The full blood count results show thrombocytosis, which may indicate malignancy. Hereditary telangiectasia and Von Willebrand’s disease are unlikely due to the absence of a family history and the onset of nosebleeds in later life. Nasal polyps do not typically cause epistaxis, but may present with nasal obstruction, postnasal drip, snoring, or obstructive sleep apnoea. The patient’s age rules out angiofibroma as a possible cause, as this benign tumour typically occurs in pre-pubescent and adolescent males and is rare over the age of 25.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of recurrent nosebleeds from his right nostril over the past week. The bleeding lasts for about 30 minutes but is not severe. The patient has a history of ischemic heart disease and is on regular medication of aspirin 75 mg and atorvastatin 40 mg. He denies any allergies and has no other significant medical history. On examination, there is no visible bleeding point, and all vital signs are normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient, in addition to general epistaxis advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical Naseptin (chlorhexidine/neomycin) cream
Explanation:Recurrent nosebleeds without any concerning symptoms can be effectively treated with Naseptin cream, which contains chlorhexidine and neomycin. While severe cases may require emergency care, mild cases can be managed in primary care. According to NICE guidelines, topical treatment with Naseptin cream is a suitable first-line approach.
If the nosebleeds are heavy but not currently active, persist despite topical treatment, or the patient is taking anticoagulant medication, referral to an ENT ‘hot clinic’ may be necessary. If the nosebleeds continue to recur despite treatment, referral to an ENT outpatient clinic for SPA ligation may be considered.
In primary care, silver nitrate cautery may be attempted if a clear bleeding point can be identified and the healthcare provider has the appropriate skills and experience. However, patients should not stop taking antiplatelet medication without consulting their healthcare provider.
Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management
Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.
Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.
If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.
Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is brought in for an urgent appointment with her mother. She has been experiencing a sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache for the past two days. Yesterday, she complained of pain in her right ear, which has now spread to both ears. She has difficulty eating and drinking due to discomfort.
During the examination, bilateral swelling is observed, which is obstructing the angle of the jaw on both sides. When attempting to open her mouth to examine her throat, she experiences discomfort.
The patient has no significant medical history, and her mother is unsure if she has received all of her scheduled vaccinations.
What is the incubation period for this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14-21 days
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Incubation Period
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. The patient typically experiences a nonspecific prodrome of sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache, which eventually leads to inflammation of the parotid gland. Fortunately, symptomatic treatment is usually sufficient, and the illness resolves within one to two weeks.
However, mumps can lead to serious complications, with meningoencephalitis occurring in 10% of patients with parotitis, and orchitis occurring in 25% of postpubertal males affected by mumps. In about 15% of those affected by orchitis, it is bilateral.
It’s worth noting that the incubation period for mumps may vary slightly depending on the reference source. However, the correct answer should always fall within a reasonable range, so don’t be too concerned if the limits of the reference range differ slightly from what you may have read elsewhere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated eardrum
Explanation:Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl undergoes pinnaplasty.
What is the most significant risk of the surgery that should be discussed with her parents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imperfect result
Explanation:Pinnaplasty: A Solution for Congenitally Prominent Ears
Congenitally prominent ears can have a significant impact on a child’s emotional and behavioral well-being. Pinnaplasty, also known as otoplasty, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve the appearance of the auricle. It is typically performed on children between the ages of 5 and 14, but can be done at any age.
During the procedure, an incision is made behind the ear in the natural fold where the ear meets the head. The necessary amount of cartilage and skin is removed to achieve the desired effect. In some cases, the cartilage may also be trimmed and reshaped before being pinned back with permanent stitches.
While pinnaplasty is generally safe, incomplete correction of prominent ears is the most common undesirable outcome. Other potential complications include postoperative bleeding or fluid accumulation, infection, and scarring.
It’s important to note that pinnaplasty only addresses the external ear and doesn’t involve the middle ear or eardrum. As such, other complications are unlikely to occur. Overall, pinnaplasty can be an effective solution for those seeking to improve the appearance of congenitally prominent ears.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.
What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers
Explanation:There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. Tuning fork tests are performed, revealing a Rinne-positive result on both sides (air conduction heard better than bone conduction) and lateralisation of the Weber test to the left ear. How should these tuning fork test results be interpreted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:Tuning Fork Tests for Hearing Loss
Tuning fork tests are commonly used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. Two tests are usually performed: the Rinne test and the Weber test. The Rinne test compares air conduction to bone conduction by placing the tuning fork against the mastoid and adjacent to the ear canal on both sides. Normally, sound is heard better by air conduction than bone conduction, resulting in a Rinne-positive outcome. Conductive hearing loss, however, causes a Rinne-negative pattern, where bone conduction is better than air conduction. A Rinne-positive result is also seen in sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing, which is why the Weber test is necessary to provide further information.
The Weber test involves placing the tuning fork on the forehead and checking if sound waves are transmitted equally to both ears. In normal hearing, the sound is heard equally in both ears. Conductive hearing loss in one ear causes the sound to be heard on the same side as the conductive loss. On the other hand, sensorineural hearing loss causes sound to be heard on the opposite side.
In this case, the Rinne test resulted in a positive outcome on both sides, indicating no conductive hearing loss. However, the Weber test showed lateralization to the right, suggesting left-sided sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice, firm cervical nodes and difficulty in swallowing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Types of Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Characteristics
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the upper airway, with the larynx being the most likely location. Symptoms may include pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, and stridor in advanced cases. Small cell carcinoma of the larynx is rare. Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx is relatively rare and usually squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are common varieties of oesophageal cancer, with dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding being red flag features. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tonsillar cancer, with symptoms including a sore throat, ear pain, a foreign body sensation, bleeding, and a neck mass. Tonsillar enlargement may be the only sign if the tumour growth is below the surface, or there may be a fungating mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts
Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:
Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.Myth: Systemic complications are common.
Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a left facial palsy. She reports that the weakness developed gradually over a few days. She is waiting for a referral to the hospital for a nodular swelling in the left parotid salivary gland, suspected to be caused by a stone. Her husband is currently taking oral aciclovir for shingles.
During the examination, a hard nodular mass is found over the tail of the left parotid gland, along with a lower motor neurone seventh nerve palsy.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent surgical referral
Explanation:Parotid Tumour with Facial Palsy
The presence of a hard, nodular mass over the tail of the parotid gland and facial palsy strongly suggest a parotid tumour with nerve infiltration. Urgent referral to a hospital for surgical review and possible biopsy under ultrasound guidance is necessary. Unfortunately, facial nerve function recovery is unlikely.
There is no indication of zoster infection or underlying inflammation, so aciclovir and prednisolone are not appropriate treatments. Sialography is useful for investigating salivary gland ducts and stones, but not for neoplastic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her left ear.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:Salivary Gland Neoplasms: Common Benign Tumors and Signs of Malignancy
Salivary gland neoplasms are mostly benign, with pleomorphic adenoma being the most common. Pain may occur, and a persistent and unexplained neck lump warrants urgent referral. Mumps is not a likely cause as it typically affects both parotid glands. Lymphoma usually causes enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, while parotid carcinoma is much less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant tumors may present with rapid growth, hardness, fixation, tenderness, lymph node involvement, and metastatic disease. Infiltration may affect local sensory nerves and the facial nerve. Reactive lymphadenopathy usually involves multiple lymph nodes and is transient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the past two weeks. He experiences episodes of vertigo when he turns his head, particularly when he turns over in bed. He denies any recent illness or injury. The vertigo lasts for several seconds at a time and he reports no hearing loss, ear pain, fullness, or ringing. On examination, there are no abnormalities in cranial nerve function, cerebellar signs, or Romberg's test. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive for rotatory vertigo and nystagmus.
What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promethazine 25 mg nocte
Explanation:Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
This patient is exhibiting typical signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is important to note that vestibular sedatives are not effective in managing BPPV. However, the Epley manoeuvre can be performed and taught to the patient, which has been shown to effectively reduce or eliminate symptoms.
It is also important to remember that no treatment needed is a valid management option for BPPV. This concept is particularly relevant for the MRCGP AKT exam, which tests primary care management skills. As a primary care physician, it is important to recognize when doing nothing is the most appropriate course of action for a patient. Don’t hesitate to select this option if it is the best choice for the patient’s condition.
Overall, the management of BPPV involves a combination of patient education, reassurance, and appropriate interventions such as the Epley manoeuvre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa
Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump in her throat that she has been feeling for the past six months. She reports feeling the lump even when she is not swallowing. Upon examination, her oropharynx, ears, nose, and neck appear normal. She is also a non-smoker.
What would be a significant cause for worry in a patient with these symptoms who is 50 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided ear pain
Explanation:Understanding Unilateral Ear Pain and Globus Sensation
Unilateral ear pain in adults with normal otoscopy findings may indicate cancer of the base of the tongue, especially if accompanied by persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, weight loss, or a swelling in the neck. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include smoking and alcohol consumption. However, if the pain is worse between meals and eating or drinking alleviates the symptoms, it is more likely to be globus sensation, which is the feeling of a lump in the throat that doesn’t affect swallowing function. If the symptom persists for six months without affecting swallowing, it is less likely to be a worrying cause such as laryngeal or esophageal cancer. Intermittent symptoms are also less likely to indicate a malignant cause, as they are typical for globus and often exacerbated by stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for the past two weeks. He describes the sound as a buzz but denies any other accompanying ear symptoms. Upon examination, Otoscopy, Rinne, and Weber tests are all normal. What is the recommended course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:An urgent referral to ENT is necessary for a patient experiencing unilateral tinnitus, even if their examination appears normal. This is because it could be a sign of an acoustic neuroma and requires further investigation.
While an audiogram could provide additional information, it would not alter the management plan for a GP, which would still involve an urgent referral.
CBT, reassurance, and white noise may be appropriate for chronic bilateral tinnitus, but not for this patient with unilateral tinnitus.
Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.
To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A child presents with an inability to swallow, a ‘hot potato’ voice and an asymmetrical tonsillitis.
What is the most effective treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drainage of abscess
Explanation:Treatment for Quinsy: Drainage, Antibiotics, and Corticosteroids
Quinsy, also known as peritonsillar abscess, is a serious complication of tonsillitis that requires urgent treatment. Symptoms include a displaced uvula, enlarged oropharynx, and a hot potato voice. The recommended treatment involves drainage of the abscess via needle and scalpel incision, followed by antibiotics such as penicillin, cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, or clindamycin. In some cases, intravenous corticosteroids may also be beneficial. Watchful waiting is not recommended, as the infection can spread and lead to serious complications. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent aspiration, airway obstruction, and other life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 67
Incorrect
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What are the indications for tonsillectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental pressure
Explanation:Indications for Tonsillectomy
The SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy have been updated to suggest seven acute attacks of proven tonsillitis in one year or five in each of two successive years as an indication for the procedure. Weight loss alone is not a sufficient indication, but complications such as nephritis and rheumatic fever, as well as peritonsillar abscess, are. Children with obstructive sleep apnoea have also been shown to benefit from tonsillectomy. Malignancy is an absolute indication. However, three attacks in two years and two attacks in two months are considered too short a period to warrant tonsillectomy. It is important to note that while children may experience an improvement in general health post-tonsillectomy, weight loss alone is not a valid indication for the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 68
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with tinnitus.
Which of the following statements about tinnitus is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour
Explanation:Myths and Facts About Tinnitus
Tinnitus, the perception of sound in the absence of external sound, is a common condition that affects around 10% of adults in the UK. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition.
One myth is that tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour. While unilateral tinnitus may be a sign of an acoustic neuroma, this is rare.
Another myth is that tinnitus is usually caused by drugs. While over 200 drugs are reported to cause tinnitus, drugs are not the commonest cause.
A third myth is that there is no treatment for tinnitus. However, a hearing aid can often help, and relaxation techniques or background music may also be beneficial.
Finally, some people believe that tinnitus is rare in the absence of ear disease and that it is usually constant in severity. In fact, tinnitus can have a wide variety of causes and symptoms, and many cases have no identifiable cause. Symptoms may come and go, and most cases of tinnitus are mild and improve over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 70
Incorrect
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On a Monday morning you see a 25-year-old man who has a broken nose from a fight the previous Saturday night. Apart from pain and swelling, he has no other symptoms.
Which of the following statements about the management of a fractured nose is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Manipulation under anaesthetic is best performed 5–7 days after injury
Explanation:Myths and Facts about Nasal Fractures
Nasal fractures are a common injury that can result from trauma to the face. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding the diagnosis and management of these fractures. Here are some important facts to keep in mind:
Timing of Fracture Reduction
Myth: Fracture reduction can be performed immediately after injury.
Fact: Fracture reduction is best performed 5-7 days after injury, when swelling has subsided. Immediate reduction may be possible if there is little swelling.Role of Radiological Imaging
Myth: Radiological imaging is essential in confirming the diagnosis of nasal fractures.
Fact: The diagnosis of nasal fracture is usually made clinically, and imaging is usually unnecessary. X-rays are unreliable in the diagnosis of nasal fractures and do not usually affect patient management.Significance of Clear Rhinorrhoea
Myth: Clear rhinorrhoea is of no consequence.
Fact: Clear rhinorrhoea may be a sign of a cerebrospinal fluid leak and should prompt further urgent assessment.Management of Septal Haematomas
Myth: Septal haematomas usually resolve spontaneously.
Fact: Septal haematomas should be drained promptly to prevent septal perforation. Antibiotics should be prescribed after drainage.Referral for Manipulation under Anaesthetic
Myth: The patient should be referred immediately for manipulation under anaesthetic.
Fact: Further reasons for immediate referral include marked nasal deviation, persisting epistaxis, intercanthal widening, facial anaesthesia, facial or mandibular fracture, and ophthalmoplegia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of anorexia, feverishness, and vertigo that have been going on for four days. He reports having difficulty balancing and staying upright when walking, as well as experiencing mild vertigo episodes lasting 10-20 minutes at a time. His hearing is unaffected. During the examination, some cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, but otherwise, there are no notable findings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:A typical case of vestibular neuritis involves a patient who has recently recovered from an upper respiratory tract infection and experiences recurrent episodes of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. There is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus present. Prior to the onset of symptoms, the patient may have experienced viral symptoms. Unlike labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis doesn’t cause hearing loss or tinnitus. If a patient experiences any neurological symptoms or signs, acute deafness, new types of headaches, or vertical nystagmus, urgent referral should be considered.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents to you with complaints of tinnitus and hearing loss for the past few weeks. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and is currently on medications including salbutamol inhaler, azithromycin, beclomethasone-formoterol (Fostair) inhaler, tiotropium inhaler, and glycopyrronium bromide.
Upon examination, you note a positive Rinne test bilaterally with reduced hearing on both sides, worse on the left. The Weber test lateralizes to the right, and otoscopy is normal. You suspect a sensorineural hearing loss and urgently refer the patient to an ENT specialist.
Which medication from his current regimen may be contributing to his symptoms and should be discontinued?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin has been found to have a negative impact on hearing, causing tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss. Patients should discontinue use of the medication immediately if these symptoms occur to prevent irreversible hearing damage. While most cases of hearing loss will improve, caution should be exercised when taking this medication.
Salbutamol and beclomethasone-formoterol are associated with common side effects such as arrhythmias, headaches, dizziness, nausea, palpitations, tremor, and hypokalaemia (with high doses). Tiotropium and glycopyrronium are also associated with side effects such as arrhythmias, cough, headaches, dry mouth, and nausea.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with persistent foul-smelling left ear discharge. This is the 3rd time he has been seen over the last few months with this problem and each time he has been treated with topical treatment for otitis externa. The discharge has never settled and he now feels that his hearing is reduced in the left ear.
On examination, he is afebrile and systemically well. There is no otalgia. There is discharge in the left ear canal obstructing visualisation of the left eardrum. Aside from the discharge there is nothing else focal to be seen. The right ear is normal. The external ears and mastoids are normal. There is no facial nerve palsy or neurological symptoms.
What is the most appropriate management approach?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him for examination with an otomicroscope and micro-suctioning of the ear
Explanation:Cholesteatoma: A Potential Diagnosis for Persistent Ear Discharge
This patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a cholesteatoma, a buildup of keratin in the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces. Common symptoms include persistent or recurrent foul-smelling discharge from the ear, conductive hearing loss, and potential complications such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and intracranial infection. Diagnosis requires visualizing the tympanic membrane, which may show a deep retraction pocket, crust/keratin, or perforation. In cases where discharge prevents visualization, referral for examination with an otomicroscope and micro-suctioning is appropriate. If discharge persists despite treatment, referral to a specialist should not be delayed. Given this patient’s persistent symptoms, referral is the most appropriate approach to investigate the potential underlying diagnosis of a cholesteatoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker requests more antibiotics for a left-sided earache. He had seen a locum for tonsillitis three weeks ago, which was mainly on the left side, and was prescribed penicillin V. On examination, his ears appear normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Examine the pharynx
Explanation:Treatment Options for Different Ear Conditions
Examination of the Pharynx for Unilateral Ear Pain
If a patient presents with unilateral ear pain and a normal appearance of the ear, it is important to examine the pharynx and tonsils. Tonsillar carcinoma may cause referred pain and present with unilateral tonsillar enlargement. Prognosis is poor, but surgery and radiotherapy may be helpful.
No Antibiotics Needed for Unresolved Symptoms
If a patient’s symptoms have not improved despite initial treatment, a delayed prescription for antibiotics will not help and may delay diagnosis. Further investigation should be considered.
Exercises for Eustachian Tube Dysfunction
Eustachian tube dysfunction may cause muffled sounds or a popping/clicking sensation. Treatment may include exercises such as swallowing, yawning, or chewing gum to help open the Eustachian tube.
Topical Antibiotics for Otitis Externa
Otitis externa may cause a swollen and erythematous ear canal with discharge or debris. Topical antibiotics such as neomycin or ciprofloxacin may be prescribed to treat this condition. However, the appearance of a normal ear canal and tympanic membrane doesn’t indicate a need for topical antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 75
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old male patient with right sided facial paralysis. It started about 3 days ago and has slowly become worse. He is unable to raise his right forehead, close his right eye or move the right-hand side of his mouth. He has also noticed that his taste has been altered on the right-hand side of his tongue.
He is not particularly worried about it as it happened 12 months ago and you diagnosed Bell's palsy. He would like some more treatment as he feels it helped his recovery last time. He is normally fit and well and has no allergies.
You arrange to see the patient in your afternoon clinic to examine him.
Regarding Bell's palsy, which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient with a recurrent Bell's palsy needs urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Referral to ENT is urgently needed for a patient experiencing recurrent Bell’s palsy. Treatment with corticosteroids is recommended for Bell’s palsy, as it has been shown to improve prognosis in meta-analyses. Antiviral treatments are not recommended. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur with Bell’s palsy, but doesn’t require urgent referral to ENT. It is important to note that a bilateral palsy is not a Bell’s palsy and requires urgent referral to ENT or neurology.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a swollen ear. He plays amateur rugby and was punched during a match the previous day. The upper pinna is fluctuant and mildly erythematous, but there are no other injuries. What is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early drainage and compression
Explanation:Auricular Haematoma: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Auricular haematoma is a common facial injury that results from direct trauma to the anterior auricle. It is often seen in athletes such as wrestlers, rugby players, and footballers. The condition occurs when shearing forces cause separation of the perichondrium from the underlying cartilage, leading to tearing of the perichondrial blood vessels and hematoma formation.
If left untreated, the haematoma can lead to avascular necrosis of the auricular cartilage, resulting in a ‘cauliflower ear’ deformity. To prevent this, evacuation of the haematoma is necessary. This can be done through aspiration with a 10 ml syringe attached to a wide needle or by incision and drainage. Compression is also necessary to prevent reoccurrence.
However, infection may be a complication, and if it worsens, patients may need to be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics and surgical exploration. Patients with recurrent haematomas or haematomas more than seven days old may also need surgical debridement.
In conclusion, auricular haematoma is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. Athletes and individuals who engage in activities that put them at risk of this injury should take precautions to avoid it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils of a young patient during anterior rhinoscopy. The swelling is tender to the touch and appears to be blocking the airway. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior turbinate
Explanation:Understanding the Inferior Turbinate: Causes of Enlargement and Treatment Options
The inferior turbinate is a structure in the nasal cavity that is prone to enlargement, leading to nasal obstruction. This can be caused by various factors, including allergic rhinitis, inflammation, and the prolonged use of nasal sprays. If the obstruction is severe, treatment with nasal corticosteroids may be necessary.
It is important to note that the inferior turbinate is often mistaken for other pathologies during examination. Nasal polyps, for example, are insensitive and light grey in color, while foreign bodies are usually unilateral and accompanied by a nasal discharge, and are more common in children. The middle turbinate is located higher up and further back in the nasal cavity than the inferior turbinate, while the superior turbinate is rarely visible on anterior rhinoscopy.
Understanding the causes and symptoms of inferior turbinate enlargement can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and noisy respiration. The noise is a heavy-snoring inspiratory sound. His tonsils are enlarged and inflamed.
Which of the following describes the sound that this child is making?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stertorous
Explanation:Stertorous refers to a noisy and laboured breathing sound, often heard during deep sleep or coma, caused by obstruction in the upper airways. Hypernasal speech is an abnormal voice resonance due to increased airflow through the nose during speech, caused by an incomplete closure of the soft palate and/or velopharyngeal sphincter. Rales, also known as crackles or crepitations, are clicking or crackling noises heard during auscultation, caused by the popping open of small airways and alveoli collapsed by fluid or exudate during expiration. Stridor is a high-pitched sound occurring during inhalation or exhalation, indicating respiratory obstruction, commonly caused by croup, foreign bodies, or allergic reactions. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, caused by narrowed airways, typically in asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his primary care physician with concerns about a persistent ulcer on his tongue that has been growing for a few weeks. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes a day, and drinks alcohol regularly. Upon examination, the physician notes bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy, multiple dental caries, and a 1-cm ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week rule
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Tongue Cancer
Tongue cancer is a common type of oral cancer, with about 75% of cases occurring on the mobile tongue. It typically presents as a persistent growing lesion, which may be painless or painful. Carcinoma of the tongue base is often clinically silent until it infiltrates the musculature. Risk factors for tongue cancer include poor dental hygiene, smoking, drinking, and betel and pan consumption in ethnic minorities.
All suspicious tongue lesions should be referred urgently under the 2-week rule for exclusion of malignancy. Treatment options for tongue cancer include surgery and radiotherapy. The overall 5-year survival rates are 60% for women and 40% for men.
It is important to note that prescribing Tri Adcortyl® ointment or antibiotics would not be appropriate for the management of tongue cancer. Instead, urgent referral for further evaluation and treatment is necessary.
In some cases, a chancre caused by syphilis may present as a solitary, painless, indurated, reddish ulcer on the oral mucosa. Therefore, testing for syphilis and treating if positive may be necessary in some cases. However, it is important to differentiate between syphilis and tongue cancer, as the management and prognosis differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male comes to the GP with a history of hearing loss for 6 months due to ototoxicity from furosemide. Upon examination, he has severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and can only hear spoken words if they are within 10 cm of him. He has been using hearing aids for 4 months, but they are not very effective. What aspect of his history indicates that cochlear implantation may be necessary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duration of hearing aid use
Explanation:Before considering a cochlear implant as a management strategy for hearing loss in adults, a failed trial of hearing aids for at least 3 months is generally required, regardless of the cause, age at the time of hearing loss, duration, or severity of the condition. In the case of this patient, the duration of his hearing aid use is the most significant factor suggesting the appropriateness of a cochlear implant.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 81
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma
Explanation:Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer
Laryngeal Carcinoma:
The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.Breast Cancer:
Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.Colonic Carcinoma:
Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.Gastric Carcinoma:
Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.Lung Cancer:
Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with multiple symptoms affecting his nose and throat. He has long-standing nasal congestion, but over the past week has also been suffering from a painful lesion in his mouth, sore throat and hoarse voice. On examination, he has bilateral, grey nasal swellings, a solitary yellow ulcer of 4 mm diameter on the oral mucosa, a multinodular goitre and unilateral parotid enlargement. He states that the parotid lump has been there for a few months, at least. His GP suspects cancer.
Which of the following presentations warrants specialist referral under the 2-week rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland
Explanation:Common Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
The following are common head and neck symptoms and the appropriate referral guidelines:
1. Discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland: Any unexplained lump in the head or neck requires a 2-week rule referral. A discrete, persistent, unilateral lump in the parotid gland requires an urgent referral, imaging, and further investigation to determine the nature of the mass.
2. Solitary, painful ulcer on the oral mucosa, of 1-week duration: This is most likely to be an aphthous ulcer. An unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks, or an unexplained neck lump, would warrant a 2-week wait referral.
3. A 7-day history of hoarseness and sore throat: Patients over the age of 45 with persistent unexplained hoarseness should be referred using the cancer pathway. After seven days, this is most likely to be an upper respiratory tract infection.
4. Diffuse multinodular thyroid swelling: For suspected thyroid cancer, the single referral criterion is an ‘unexplained thyroid lump’. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is a multinodular goitre.
5. Nasal obstruction and bilateral grey swellings visible by nasal speculum: Bilateral nasal swellings of this description are almost certainly polyps. These can initially be managed in primary care. Unilateral polyps should be referred to the ear, nose and throat clinic.
Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of gradual hearing loss and worsening tinnitus over the past year. She has no significant medical history but reports that her father also experienced hearing loss at a young age. On neurological examination, she has mild bilateral conductive hearing loss, but her tympanic membrane appears normal. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Otosclerosis, which is an inherited condition, can cause hearing loss in young adults. The symptoms of slowly progressing bilateral conductive hearing loss and a positive family history are typical of otosclerosis.
Presbyacusis, on the other hand, is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging and is unlikely to affect a young woman. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by acoustic neuroma, while Meniere’s disease is characterized by episodes of vertigo.
Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes in with bilateral tinnitus. She denies any changes in her hearing or other ear-related symptoms. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in her ears or cranial nerves. Which medication is she likely to have started taking recently?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quinine
Explanation:Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.
To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing difficulties over the last 2 months. She has been an avid swimmer for the past 20 years. During the examination, Rinne's test is positive on her left ear but negative on her right ear. Weber's test shows sound localizing to the right side.
What is the type of hearing loss that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided conductive hearing loss
Explanation:If Rinne’s test is negative, it indicates that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, resulting in a conductive hearing loss in the affected ear. A positive test is considered normal when air conduction is greater than bone conduction. Therefore, the diagnosis of left-sided conductive hearing loss is correct, and Weber’s test would localize to the affected side in unilateral conductive hearing loss.
Left-sided mixed hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and on an audiogram, mixed hearing loss would show both bone and air conduction at abnormal levels (>20 dB) with a difference of at least >15 dB between them.
Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss is also an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and Rinne’s test would be positive in the left ear.
Right-sided conductive hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because a positive Rinne’s test indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is considered normal.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of painful gums. Upon examination, he is found to have gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Phenytoin, ciclosporin, calcium channel blockers, and AML are all associated with gingival hyperplasia.
Understanding Gingival Hyperplasia and Its Causes
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an abnormal growth of gum tissue, resulting in an enlarged and swollen appearance. This condition can be caused by various factors, including certain medications and medical conditions. Some of the drugs that have been linked to gingival hyperplasia include phenytoin, ciclosporin, and calcium channel blockers, particularly nifedipine. These drugs can cause an overgrowth of gum tissue, leading to discomfort and difficulty in maintaining proper oral hygiene.
Aside from medication, gingival hyperplasia can also be a symptom of acute myeloid leukemia, particularly the myelomonocytic and monocytic types. This type of cancer affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to abnormal growth of white blood cells and other blood components. As a result, the gums may become swollen and inflamed, making it difficult to eat, speak, and perform other daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been present for the past 5 weeks after a recent respiratory tract infection. He reports feeling nauseous and unsteady on his feet, especially when turning over in bed. He denies any hearing loss or ringing in his ears. A cerebellar stroke was ruled out when he was initially evaluated at the hospital.
During the examination, you observe fine-horizontal nystagmus. However, the neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable, and his hearing and otoscopy results are normal. You suspect that he may be suffering from vestibular neuronitis.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to a balance specialist for consideration of vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms of vestibular neuronitis. While short-term use of oral prochlorperazine or antihistamines can provide relief, they should not be used for more than three days as they may hinder the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery.
NICE CKS guidance advises against the use of corticosteroids, benzodiazepines, or antiviral medication as there is no evidence of their effectiveness.
If symptoms persist for six weeks or more, patients should be referred to a specialist for further investigation and vestibular rehabilitation exercises. It is crucial to note that urgent referral is necessary if symptoms do not improve within one week of initial treatment to rule out other potential causes.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker of 20 cigarettes a day, presents with a three month history of persistent hoarseness. On direct questioning he admits to left-sided earache.
On examination he is hoarse and has mild stridor. Examination of his ears is normal. Endoscopy of his upper airway shows an irregular mass in the larynx.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Diagnosing Laryngeal Pathology
This patient’s heavy smoking and symptoms suggest laryngeal pathology, with an irregular mass noted on nasal endoscopy. These features point to a diagnosis of laryngeal carcinoma, the most common cause of hoarseness in adults.
Laryngeal papillomatosis, caused by HPV genotypes 6 and 11, is more common in children and presents with generalised lumpiness in the larynx and trachea. Familiarity with the condition can aid diagnosis, but biopsy is usually necessary.
Laryngeal lymphoma is extremely rare and is usually accompanied by lymphoma elsewhere in the body. Laryngeal TB can resemble carcinoma but is also very rare. Thyroid cancer presents as a thyroid lump and can also cause hoarseness, but laryngeal carcinoma is the most common cause.
In summary, when presented with a patient who is a heavy smoker and exhibiting symptoms of laryngeal pathology, an irregular mass on nasal endoscopy is highly suggestive of laryngeal carcinoma. Other conditions such as laryngeal papillomatosis, lymphoma, TB, and thyroid cancer should also be considered but are much less common. Biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mastoiditis
Explanation:Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat. Upon examination, she has enlarged tonsils on both sides and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Her medical history shows that she has had six episodes of tonsillitis in the past year and has missed several days of school due to her sore throat. With a Centor score of 3/4, you decide to prescribe penicillin V. What other treatment options should be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT for consideration of a tonsillectomy
Explanation:The frequency of tonsillectomies has significantly decreased in recent years due to increased recognition of the possible risks and limited advantages. Nevertheless, the patient meets the referral standards outlined by NICE.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 91
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner by her mother who is concerned that she seems to be struggling to hear normal volume voices on the television and in conversation. On examination she is afebrile and there is a loss of the light reflex on both tympanic membranes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist
Explanation:The patient is showing classic signs of bilateral otitis media with effusion, which is common in children with Down syndrome or a cleft palate. The NICE recommends immediate referral to an ENT specialist for children with these conditions presenting with otitis media with effusion. For other children, watchful waiting for three months is advised, with hearing tests and tympanometry carried out during this period. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion, and topical antibiotics have no role in treatment. Intranasal corticosteroids are not recommended for this condition, as their efficacy has not been proven.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 93
Incorrect
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You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee
Explanation:Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study
This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.
It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits the GP clinic after waking up unable to move the left side of his face. His wife observed slight drooling from the left side and difficulty fully closing his left eyelid. He has no significant medical history. Which symptom is most consistent with Bell's palsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paralysis of whole face of the affected side
Explanation:Bell’s palsy results in complete paralysis on one side of the face as it affects the lower motor neurones. In contrast, upper motor neurone-related conditions like stroke spare the forehead, which exhibits some wrinkling due to the bilateral nerve innervation of the forehead by upper motor neurones.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral sensorineural deafness. She has no prior history of ear issues and is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation:Idiopathic Unilateral Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Idiopathic unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss (ISSHL) is a rare condition characterized by a sudden loss of hearing in one ear, often accompanied by tinnitus, vertigo, and aural fullness. The exact cause of ISSHL is not well understood, but it may be linked to viral infections, vascular issues, or immune-mediated inner ear disease.
Patients with ISSHL should be referred for urgent treatment, typically involving corticosteroids. Other treatment options include low molecular weight dextran, carbogen, hyperbaric oxygen, low-density lipid apheresis, aciclovir, and stellate ganglion block. However, there is limited evidence to support the effectiveness of any one treatment.
Many patients with ISSHL are admitted to the hospital, but fortunately, spontaneous recovery rates are generally good. Studies have reported recovery rates ranging from 47-63%, although different criteria for recovery were used in each study.
In summary, ISSHL is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. While treatment options exist, the evidence for their effectiveness is limited, and many patients may recover spontaneously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a large thyroid swelling, difficulty breathing on lying flat and slight dysphagia. What is the most appropriate investigation to delineate the size and extent of the goitre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Thyroid Evaluation
Thyroid evaluation involves the use of various diagnostic imaging techniques to determine the size, extent, and function of the thyroid gland. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is a precise method that provides a better assessment of the effect of the thyroid gland on nearby structures. Barium swallow is useful in assessing oesophageal obstruction, while chest X-ray can determine the extent of goitre and the presence of calcification. Ultrasound is commonly used to guide biopsy of the thyroid and detect and characterise thyroid nodules. Radionuclide uptake and scanning using technetium isotope are used to evaluate thyroid function and anatomy in hyperthyroidism, including the assessment of thyroid nodules. These diagnostic imaging techniques play a crucial role in the accurate diagnosis and management of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female presents to you with complaints of a sore throat. She reports feeling sick for the past three days with a high fever and painful throat. She has been self-medicating with an over-the-counter flu remedy containing paracetamol. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 37.1°C, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, visible tonsillar exudate, and a dry cough. What is this patient's Centor score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Understanding the Centor Score for Tonsillitis
The Centor score is a tool used by clinicians to differentiate between viral and bacterial tonsillitis, which helps guide the use of antibiotics. It consists of four criteria: the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, a history of fever, and absence of cough. If at least three out of the four criteria are met, it suggests a bacterial infection and antibiotics may be beneficial. Conversely, if less than three criteria are met, antibiotics are unlikely to be needed. It’s important to note that the Centor score is based on a history of fever, not necessarily a fever at the time of being seen. The McIsaac modification adds a point for patients under 15 years old and deducts a point for those over 45 years old. The Centor score is a helpful tool, but it should not replace clinical judgement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about tuning fork tests used for hearing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A false negative Rinne occurs in conductive deafness
Explanation:Tuning Forks for Hearing and Vibration Testing
A tuning fork is a useful tool for testing both hearing and vibration. However, not all tuning forks are created equal. A 128 tuning fork is suitable for testing vibration, but it is not reliable for hearing. For hearing tests, the 512 cps fork is the best option, although a compromise frequency of 256 can also be used. It’s important to note that compromise frequencies are less effective for both hearing and vibration.
When conducting lateralizing tests, the Weber test is commonly used. However, it is less reliable than the Rinne test. False negative Rinne results can occur in cases of sensorineural deafness. Therefore, it’s important to choose the appropriate tuning fork for the specific test being conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his right ear. Upon examination, you observe that his right ear canal is obstructed with wax, while the left ear is unobstructed. What results would you anticipate when conducting Rinne and Weber tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weber: sound localises to the right; Rinne: BC > AC on the right and AC > BC on the left
Explanation:The Rinne and Weber tests are utilized to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.
In the case of this individual, there is an obstruction of wax in the right ear canal, which would result in a conductive hearing loss on the right side.
During the Weber test, the patient should be able to locate the sound to the side of a conductive hearing loss, as bone conduction is enhanced. The sound will be located away from a sensorineural hearing loss.
If there is a conductive hearing loss, the Rinne test will be negative, as bone conduction is better than air conduction. It will be positive if air conduction is better than bone conduction, which may be the case for mild-moderate sensorineural hearing loss or if there is normal hearing.
In this instance, the wax blockage causes a conductive hearing loss on the right side. Therefore, during the Weber test, the sound should be localized to the right, and Rinne should be negative on the right side and positive on the left.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her teachers that she doesn't seem to pay attention in class. She reports the girl often turns up the volume of the television while at home. On examination, the right eardrum is retracted and there is loss of the light reflex. You suspect otitis media with effusion and arrange pure tone audiometry which reveals moderate hearing loss particularly at low frequencies. She presented to your colleague 10 weeks previously with similar symptoms, with similar audiometry findings.
What is the next most appropriate management in primary care according to the current NICE CKS guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist for further management
Explanation:If a child has significant hearing loss due to glue ear on two separate occasions, it is recommended to refer them to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests observing children with otitis media with effusion for 6-12 weeks as spontaneous resolution is common. However, if the signs and symptoms persist after this period, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. It is important to inquire about any concerns regarding the child’s hearing or language development and for any complications. Immediate referral is required for children with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate who are suspected to have otitis media with effusion. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. The most common surgical option is myringotomy and insertion of grommets, but non-surgical management options are also considered by the ENT specialist. As the child in question has already presented with persistent hearing loss after 12 weeks, referral to ENT is appropriate at this point.
Understanding Glue Ear
Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.
The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Which of the following patients is most likely to develop nasal polyps?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 40-year-old man
Explanation:Male adults are the most commonly affected by nasal polyps.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a sudden cough that has lasted for four days and a dry throat. She feels sick but has no fever. Her lung examination is normal. Which of the following is not a reason to prescribe antibiotics immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough
Explanation:Factors to Consider When Prescribing Antibiotics for Respiratory Infections
When considering prescribing antibiotics for respiratory infections, it is important to take into account various risk factors that may increase the likelihood of complications. While antibiotics may be necessary in some cases, their use should be weighed against potential adverse effects and the development of antibiotic-resistance patterns.
One factor to consider is hoarseness and/or laryngitis accompanying the cough. In most cases, laryngitis is mild and self-limiting, and antibiotics may not be necessary. However, they may be considered in patients with persistent symptoms.
Another factor to consider is a history of congestive cardiac failure. For patients between 65 and 79 years, two risk factors should be present before prescribing antibiotics.
Current use of oral glucocorticoids is also a risk factor, as these patients are immunosuppressed and may be more susceptible to complications from respiratory infections.
Diabetes and hospitalization in the previous year are also risk factors for complications and should be taken into account when considering antibiotic prescriptions.
Overall, it is important to carefully evaluate each patient’s individual risk factors before deciding whether antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.
On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up
Explanation:Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection
The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.
If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, particularly meat. She experiences discomfort at the lower end of the sternum and has trouble shifting it almost immediately after swallowing. The patient has a longstanding history of GORD and has intermittently taken omeprazole 20 mg/day for the past decade. She has not experienced any weight loss or vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for direct access upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for New Onset Dysphagia
The sudden onset of dysphagia, even in patients with a long history of GORD and dyspepsia, requires an urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Delaying the referral can lead to serious complications and worsen the patient’s condition. Therefore, all other options apart from an urgent referral should be avoided. It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s health and well-being by promptly addressing any new symptoms that arise. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria
Explanation:Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma
Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.
In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.
The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually last for 30-60 minutes and happen every few days. The patient experiences a sensation of the room spinning and often feels nauseous during these attacks. Additionally, there is a 'roaring' sensation in the left ear. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, but Weber's test indicates localization to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniere's disease
Explanation:The Weber’s test in sensorineural hearing loss indicates that the sound is perceived more strongly in the ear opposite to the affected ear.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male presents with hearing difficulties. You conduct an assessment of his auditory system, which includes Rinne's and Weber's tests:
Rinne's test: Left ear - bone conduction > air conduction; Right ear - air conduction > bone conduction
Weber's test: Lateralizes to the left side
What is the significance of these test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left conductive deafness
Explanation:Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his throat and increasing hoarseness that has been present for the past 3 weeks. He reports having a cold 4 weeks ago but denies experiencing heartburn, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. He is a non-smoker and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. There is no significant medical history to note.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngopharyngeal reflux
Explanation:Laryngopharyngeal reflux may be the cause of globus and hoarseness in the absence of any red flags. This condition is often referred to as ‘silent’ reflux. While globus hystericus is a symptom of anxiety, it is unlikely to persist without other autonomic symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux, on the other hand, is characterized by retrosternal burning and regurgitation that worsens when lying down or leaning forward and is relieved by antacids. Post-nasal drip, which is commonly triggered by colds and flu, typically presents with an intractable cough or throat clearing that is worse at night.
Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of left-sided facial muscle weakness that has been present for 72 hours. She has no known medical conditions and is not taking any medications. The symptoms started during a camping trip, and she believes that her delay in seeking medical attention may have contributed to the severity of her condition. Upon examination, she exhibits left-sided facial nerve palsy with no forehead movement. All other cranial nerves appear normal, and there are no neurological deficits in her upper or lower limbs. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence oral prednisolone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this woman’s symptoms and signs of Bell’s palsy is oral prednisolone, which should be prescribed within 72 hours of symptom onset. Antiviral treatments, either alone or in combination with prednisolone, are not recommended as they have been shown to be ineffective or have weak evidence of benefit. Referring to an ENT specialist is not necessary unless there are signs of worsening neurological disturbance or systemic upset. Self-care measures alone are not sufficient and additional treatment such as eye care should be provided.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 110
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago with vertigo following a viral infection. You diagnosed vestibular neuronitis and prescribed a course of prochlorperazine for symptom control.
Olivia comes to see you today with ongoing vertigo. This improved with prochlorperazine but she still experiences attacks of vertigo which usually last hours. There are no new symptoms and neurological examination is normal.
What is the most important aspect of ongoing management for Olivia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis, as they are both safe and effective in improving functioning in the medium term. It is important to avoid prolonged use of medication, as it may interfere with the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery. While a short course of promethazine may help with symptom control, it is unlikely to provide long-term relief for vertigo. Betahistine is only indicated for vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease, and is therefore not appropriate for Marcus’s case. Hospital admission is not necessary, as Marcus is not acutely unwell and his symptoms are likely to resolve within a few weeks. However, it is important to refer chronic or recurrent cases for further evaluation to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Sarah is an 80-year-old woman who visits your clinic with complaints of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you observe that she has impacted earwax in both ear canals. You suggest using olive oil ear drops, but she informs you that she has previously tried them without success.
What would be your next course of action in managing the earwax?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate ear drops
Explanation:If using olive oil drops to remove impacted earwax is unsuccessful, an alternative option is to use sodium bicarbonate drops to soften the wax.
It is important to note that Otomize ear spray contains neomycin, an antibiotic that can be harmful to patients with a perforated eardrum. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these drops.
While ear syringing is a possibility, it is recommended to soften the wax with drops for at least two weeks prior to attempting the procedure.
Since the patient’s hearing is affected by the wax, a wait-and-see approach is not advisable. Referral to audiology is also unnecessary as the cause of the hearing loss is already known, and delaying treatment may worsen the condition.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old Chinese man who is a smoker visits his doctor with complaints of a constantly congested nose and bloody discharge from the nose. What type of cancer is he most susceptible to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal
Explanation:Differentiating Head and Neck Cancers: Understanding Risk Factors and Symptoms
Head and neck cancers can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to understand the risk factors associated with each type of cancer. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, for example, is more commonly found in Southeast Asia and is thought to be caused by both genetic susceptibility and environmental factors such as heavy alcohol intake and infection with Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include nasal obstruction, bloodstained sputum or nasal discharge, tinnitus, headache, ear fullness, and unilateral conductive hearing loss.
Oral cancers, on the other hand, tend to present with a persistent lump in the mouth or with the patient possibly complaining of ear pain or pain on chewing. Smoking, chewing tobacco, and drinking alcohol are risk factors. Laryngeal cancers are also associated with smoking, but are more common in patients of black and white ethnicities.
Malignant parotid tumors are rare, and there is no higher prevalence in patients of South Asian descent. Thyroid cancers, which are relatively common, tend to present with an unexplained lump or swelling in the front of the neck and a hoarse voice. Risk factors include exposure to ionizing radiation, thyroiditis and other thyroid diseases, as well as genetic predisposition.
Understanding the different risk factors and symptoms associated with each type of head and neck cancer can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male patient complains of intense pain deep in his right ear accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of the room spinning. Upon clinical examination, he displays a partial facial nerve paralysis on the right side and vesicular lesions on the anterior two-thirds of his tongue. What condition is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:Although vesicular lesions are typically observed in the external auditory canal and pinna, they can also appear on the front two-thirds of the tongue and the soft palate.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 114
Incorrect
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In your afternoon clinic, you come across a 45-year-old male patient complaining of vertigo. He had a recent upper respiratory tract infection and has been experiencing vertigo since then. He also reports a ringing sound in his right ear and decreased hearing. Along with vertigo, he is experiencing nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has fine horizontal nystagmus but no focal neurological signs. Which symptom or sign is unique to labyrinthitis and not vestibular neuronitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hearing loss
Explanation:Viral labyrinthitis may cause hearing loss, while vestibular neuronitis doesn’t typically result in hearing loss. However, both conditions can cause symptoms such as nausea and vomiting, vertigo, and nystagmus. Therefore, the options stating that these symptoms are exclusive to one condition or the other are incorrect.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 115
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a middle-aged woman who has come in with sudden onset of facial weakness on one side. What is the most significant risk factor for developing Bell's palsy in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is three times more likely to occur in pregnant women. While sarcoidosis can lead to facial nerve palsy, it is not directly linked to Bell’s palsy.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats, and painful lumps in his neck that worsen with alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Painful Lymphadenopathy
Painful lymphadenopathy can be a rare but significant symptom in the diagnosis of certain conditions. In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, pain on alcohol ingestion in involved lymph nodes is a strong indication of the disease, although the reasons for the pain are unknown. On the other hand, glandular fever, lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer, recurrent tonsillitis, and tuberculosis are incorrect differential diagnoses for painful lymphadenopathy.
Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, and periorbital edema. However, lymphadenopathy is always bilateral and symmetrical, and the disease is usually self-limiting. Lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer may present with a lump in the neck, but chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom, and systemic symptoms are not present. Recurrent tonsillitis may cause anterior cervical lymph nodes to enlarge and become tender, but it is usually accompanied by a sore throat. Finally, while cervical nodes are commonly affected in tuberculous lymphadenitis, they may present as abscesses with discharging sinuses, and lymph node pain on drinking alcohol doesn’t occur in tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has been using a topical analgesic (benzydamine hydrochloride gel) for 3 weeks without relief. There is no indication of joint or bowel issues in her medical history or physical examination. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to secondary care
Explanation:If an oral ulcer persists for more than 3 weeks without explanation, it is important to refer the patient to secondary care urgently to rule out the possibility of malignancy. While smoking is a risk factor for both oral malignancy and aphthous ulcers, it is not a reason for referral. Interestingly, quitting smoking can actually make aphthous ulcers worse. Over-the-counter local analgesics like Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) and Bonjela can provide relief from symptoms, but there is no evidence that they can reduce the frequency or duration of ulceration. Some evidence suggests that antibacterial mouthwashes (such as chlorhexidine) and topical corticosteroids (such as hydrocortisone oromucosal tablets) can help to shorten the duration and severity of symptoms, but they do not reduce the frequency of recurrence.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
ECG shows sinus rhythm.
CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ENT referral
Explanation:Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness
Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.
While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).
Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old left-handed man who has played drums for years complains of hearing loss. He rests the drumsticks in his left hand and his upper arm on that side tends to cover the ear.
What is the most likely finding on audiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A right-sided high frequency sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Hearing Loss: A Case Study on Rifle Shooting
Rifle shooting can lead to hearing loss, particularly high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss. In this case study, a man who is left-handed and shoots with the gun resting against his left shoulder is more likely to experience hearing loss in his right ear due to the masking effect. Ageing can also cause sensorineural hearing loss, which typically starts in the high-frequency range.
However, a right-sided conductive hearing loss is not caused by noise exposure. Conductive hearing loss occurs when there is a problem conducting sound through the outer ear, tympanic membrane, or middle ear. Causes of this include wax, serous otitis media, suppurative otitis media, perforated eardrum, and otosclerosis.
A bilateral mixed hearing loss at all frequencies is also not caused by noise exposure. Mixed hearing loss is caused when conductive damage in the outer or middle ear is combined with sensorineural damage in the inner ear or auditory nerve.
Similarly, a left-sided low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss is not an early feature of noise-induced deafness. Low-frequency hearing loss may be related to conductive hearing loss, but as a sensorineural hearing loss progresses, the initial high-frequency loss spreads through lower frequencies. Low-frequency hearing loss eventually occurs in Menière’s disease.
In summary, understanding the different types of hearing loss is crucial in identifying the causes and potential treatments. In the case of rifle shooting, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss is a common occurrence, but other types of hearing loss may have different causes and require different interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old with Down's syndrome presents to your clinic for a routine check-up. His parents have noticed that he has been having difficulty hearing for the past few weeks. Upon otoscopy, you observe indrawn tympanic membranes with fluid levels and loss of light reflexes in both ears. There are no signs of inflammation, and examinations of the nose and throat are normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:Children who have glue ear and also have Down’s syndrome or cleft palate should be referred to an ENT specialist. While most children with otitis media with effusion (OME) can be observed for 6-12 weeks, those with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate are less likely to recover on their own. It is important to follow up with all patients with OME, even if they do not meet the criteria for referral to ENT.
Antibiotics, antihistamines, and corticosteroids should not be prescribed for OME as there is no evidence to support their use. If the patient did not have Down’s syndrome, it would be appropriate to recheck their ears after 6-12 weeks and refer to ENT if the OME had not resolved. During this observation period, normal activities including swimming (except for diving) should be encouraged.
Understanding Glue Ear
Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.
The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings
A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks
Explanation:Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer
Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.
In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man who gave up smoking ten years ago presents at surgery with hoarseness.
It has been present for four weeks and is not improving. He has no systemic illness to explain it and the only thing of note is that he is a heavy whisky drinker.
You suspect he may have laryngeal cancer.
Which of the following symptoms would augment that suspicion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Odynophagia
Explanation:Symptoms of Laryngeal and Lung Cancer
Laryngeal cancer can present with two main symptoms: dysphagia and odynophagia, which are difficulty and painful swallowing, respectively. On the other hand, lung cancer may cause bovine cough, a distinct coughing sound, and recurrent laryngeal palsy. Hoarseness is a common symptom of both types of cancer, but submandibular swelling may indicate other head and neck cancers. It is important to note that vomiting is not typically a symptom of these cancers, except in advanced stages. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in cancer patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She reports no cough, has a temperature of 38.4ºC, and her tonsils are enlarged with white exudate. What is the fourth component of the Centor criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Explanation:The Centor criteria consist of a patient’s fever history, the existence of tonsillar exudate, the lack of a cough, and the presence of tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. None of the other options are included in this assessment.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 125
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old male patient who complains of left-sided facial pain, along with left-sided hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo that have persisted for about a month. During the examination, you observe an absent corneal reflex on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis that could explain these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An acoustic neuroma
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing symptoms of hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex, the most likely diagnosis is an acoustic neuroma. Facial pain may also be present.
When herpes zoster affects the first branch of the trigeminal nerve, it is known as herpes zoster ophthalmicus. Prior to the blistering rash associated with shingles, the patient may experience numbness, pain, or tingling around the eye.
Facial nerve palsy typically results in drooping of one side of the face and loss of blinking control. However, this doesn’t match the symptoms described in this scenario.
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by episodes of severe, shooting or jabbing pain that may feel like an electric shock. Vertigo and an absent corneal reflex are not typical symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor after his family complains about his hearing loss. He claims that they speak too softly, but admits that he struggles to hear in noisy settings. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, but has a history of hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
During the examination, the doctor discovers bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Presbycusis is suspected as the cause and the patient is referred for audiometric testing.
What is the expected audiogram pattern for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction better than bone
Explanation:Presbycusis is characterized by a bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing. This type of age-related hearing loss affects the inner ear and is often accompanied by difficulty hearing in noisy environments. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is more effective than bone conduction, which is the opposite of conductive hearing loss. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Bilateral high-frequency hearing loss. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction.’
Understanding Presbycusis: Age-Related Hearing Loss
Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that affects older individuals. It is a sensorineural hearing loss that typically affects high-frequency hearing bilaterally, leading to difficulties in understanding conversations, especially in noisy environments. The condition progresses slowly as the sensory hair cells and neurons in the cochlea atrophy over time. Although certain factors are associated with presbycusis, it is distinct from noise-related hearing loss.
The prevalence of presbycusis increases with age, with an estimated 25-30% of 65-74 year-olds and 40-50% of those over 75 years experiencing impaired hearing in the USA. The exact cause of presbycusis is unknown, but it is likely multifactorial. Arteriosclerosis, diabetes, accumulated exposure to noise, drug exposure, stress, and genetics are some of the factors that may contribute to the development of presbycusis.
Patients with presbycusis typically present with a chronic, slowly progressing history of difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for television or radio, difficulty using the telephone, loss of directionality of sound, and worsening of symptoms in noisy environments. Hyperacusis, a heightened sensitivity to certain frequencies of sound, and tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing in the ears, may also occur but are less common.
To diagnose presbycusis, otoscopy is performed to rule out other causes of hearing loss, such as otosclerosis or conductive hearing loss. Tympanometry is used to assess middle ear function, and audiometry is used to confirm bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Blood tests may also be performed to rule out other underlying conditions.
In summary, presbycusis is an age-related hearing loss that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Although the exact cause is unknown, it is likely due to a combination of factors. Patients with presbycusis may experience difficulty understanding speech, increased volume needed for audio devices, and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made through a combination of physical examination and hearing tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging right ear and a mild unilateral right-sided hearing loss that has been going on for 3 days. During examination, the doctor observes an intact tympanic membrane and copious purulent liquid discharge. The patient has a normal heart rate of 70 bpm and is not running a fever.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical antibiotics
Explanation:Management Options for Otitis Externa
Otitis externa is a common condition characterized by pain, itching, and discharge in the ear canal. Here are some management options for this condition:
Prescribe Topical Antibiotics: Topical antibiotics are the first-line treatment for otitis externa. Neomycin or clioquinol are recommended, and they may be combined with a topical corticosteroid if there is inflammation and eczema. Aminoglycosides should be used cautiously as second line if there is perforation of the eardrum.
Prescribe Oral Antibiotics: Oral antibiotics may be necessary if the patient is systemically unwell or there is preauricular lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin is the drug of choice.
Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for Ear Wick Insertion: If there is extensive swelling of the auditory canal, an ear wick may be used. This is impregnated with antibiotic-steroid combination and is inserted into the auditory canal. However, if the tympanic membrane is visible, topical antibiotics would be the first-line treatment.
Prescribe Analgesia Only: Paracetamol or ibuprofen is usually sufficient for analgesia in cases of otitis externa. However, analgesia should be used in combination with antibiotics to aid in curing and preventing the worsening of symptoms.
Do Not Prescribe Topical Antifungals: Topical antifungals are not indicated in simple cases of otitis externa. They may be necessary if there is a secondary fungal infection, but this is not described in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 128
Incorrect
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You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the past 2 days. She complains of feeling like the room is spinning and experiencing nausea. She has been suffering from a severe cold for the last 10 days but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination and hearing tests, you suspect that she has vestibular neuronitis.
What is a correct statement about vestibular neuronitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hearing is normal in vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and reduced hearing in the left ear. She has had these attacks for the last 1-2 years. She has a feeling of aural fullness and discomfort in the left ear in advance of an attack which persists during an attack. Attacks can last up to 2-3 hours each time and occur in clusters over a few weeks. After an attack she feels worn out for a day or two and slightly unsteady.
When seen she is asymptomatic and head and neck examination is normal. No current hearing impairment is reported or apparent.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist
Explanation:Meniere’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis
This patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with Meniere’s disease, including episodic spontaneous vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness. Meniere’s disease is characterized by acute attacks lasting a few hours, occurring in clusters, and followed by periods of remission. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for the condition, audiometric testing can be helpful in demonstrating sensorineural low-to-mid frequency hearing loss. Referral to ENT services is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.
Brandt-Daroff exercises are not recommended for managing Meniere’s disease, as they are used for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. An MRI brain scan would not be an appropriate next step in primary care based on this presentation. While audiometric assessment can be useful, it is not the best option as ENT services can arrange any necessary testing and appropriately investigate the condition. Attacks in Meniere’s disease typically settle within 24 hours, and prolonged attacks should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Referral to ENT services can provide support and input on a multidisciplinary level, which can be key if worsening symptoms, such as persistent hearing impairment, develop over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female complains of painful chewing and clicking in her jaw accompanied by a squeezing headache. She denies any joint pains and appears to be in good health. During the examination, she was able to open her mouth normally but experienced pain when opening wider. Mild pain was observed upon palpation of the area, and her temperature was 36.4ºC. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild analgesia, heat packs, avoid exacerbating foods
Explanation:Patients with suspected temporomandibular joint dysfunction should be encouraged to practice early self-management techniques to control their symptoms and limit functional impairment. These techniques include using simple analgesics like paracetamol or ibuprofen, applying heat packs to the affected area, and avoiding hard or crunchy foods that can exacerbate the pain. With proper self-management, patients can expect to recover within 2-3 months.
If temporal arteritis is suspected, investigations such as ESR and temporal biopsy may be necessary. This condition presents with a throbbing headache, an obvious temporal artery, and claudication when chewing, and requires immediate treatment with corticosteroids to prevent vision loss.
While referral to a dentist may be necessary if self-management techniques are ineffective, an x-ray of the mandible is not required for diagnosis. Strong analgesia and opioids should be avoided, as simple analgesia is just as effective and carries fewer risks. X-rays are also unnecessary, as TMJ dysfunction is a clinical diagnosis that doesn’t require imaging to manage.
Understanding Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction
Temporomandibular joint dysfunction (TMJ) is a condition that affects the jaw joint and the muscles that control its movement. It is characterized by pain in the TMJ area, which may radiate to the head, neck, or ear. Patients may also experience restricted jaw motion, making it painful to chew or speak. Additionally, they may notice clicking or other noises when moving their jaw.
To manage TMJ, healthcare professionals may recommend soft foods to reduce the strain on the jaw. Simple analgesia, such as paracetamol and NSAIDs, can also help alleviate pain. Short courses of benzodiazepines may be prescribed to help relax the muscles and reduce anxiety. It is also important to seek a review by a dentist to rule out any dental issues that may be contributing to the condition.
In summary, TMJ is a painful condition that affects the jaw joint and muscles. It can be managed through a combination of lifestyle changes, medication, and dental care. By understanding the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of TMJ on their daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 131
Incorrect
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Samantha, aged 55, presents with sudden onset dizziness described as 'the room spinning' which started three days ago. She has been unable to leave her home due to constant dizziness and nausea that accompanies it. She reports that movement seems to worsen her symptoms and denies any changes to her hearing. Apart from a recent cold, she has had no other health problems in recent years and has no past medical history except for a hysterectomy ten years ago.
After conducting a Dix-Hallpike test and examining her ear canals, which both proved normal, you diagnose her with vestibular neuronitis. She asks if there is anything she can take to alleviate her symptoms.
What advice would you give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One week trial of prochlorperazine
Explanation:Patients with peripheral vertigo may experience distressing symptoms, such as those caused by vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis. To alleviate these symptoms in the short term, a sedating antihistamine like prochlorperazine can be prescribed for up to one week. However, longer courses of treatment may delay vestibular compensation and hinder recovery.
Haloperidol, which has a low affinity for histamine receptors, may not be effective in treating vertigo and could cause unwanted side effects. Cetirizine, a non-sedating antihistamine, would not address the nausea or vertigo symptoms. Betahistine, a histamine analogue, is only licensed for treating vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Meniere’s disease. While it may be considered for persistent symptoms, it is an unlicensed use and not recommended by NICE guidance.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with intermittent epistaxis and no identifiable triggers. He has a history of adenoid surgery and anaphylaxis to peanuts. On examination, no bleeding focus is found, and his lab results show:
Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What would be the most appropriate suggestion for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recommend first aid measures during nosebleeds
Explanation:Given the patient’s normal examination and blood counts, the most suitable option would be to provide first aid measures for nosebleeds. It is important to note that Naseptin cream contains peanut oil, which is contraindicated for this patient due to her anaphylaxis to peanuts.
Performing cautery of a bleeding focus can be considered by a primary care practitioner with experience, but only if a bleeding focus is identified and not bilaterally to avoid perforation. However, since no abnormalities were found during examination, cautery is not recommended.
If the clinician is uncertain about management, referring the patient to an ENT surgeon is a viable option. This may not be the best initial management, but it is appropriate if the issue recurs.
If the bleeding persists despite appropriate first aid measures, it is recommended to advise the patient to go to the emergency department. The first aid measures would include applying pressure below the nasal bones on the nasal cartilage while sitting forward for 20 minutes.
Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management
Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.
Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.
If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.
Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of dizziness, which she describes as a sensation of the room spinning. She has experienced five such episodes in the past month, each lasting for one or two days and accompanied by nausea, which has prevented her from going to work. She reports no symptoms between episodes and has a history of migraines in her 20s but is otherwise healthy. During these episodes, she is sensitive to loud noises but denies any hearing loss or tinnitus. Neurological examination, Dix-Hallpike, and examination of both ear canals are unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular migraine
Explanation:Consider vestibular migraine as a possible cause of episodic vertigo in patients with a history of migraines. The timing and duration of vertigo symptoms can help differentiate between different causes. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo typically causes brief episodes of vertigo, while Meniere’s disease causes longer episodes with accompanying hearing loss, tinnitus, or ear fullness. Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis can cause sudden onset of constant vertigo, but not the episodic nature described in this case. Given the duration, episodic nature, phonophobia, and history of migraines, vestibular migraine is the most likely diagnosis. The International Classification of Headache Disorders provides diagnostic criteria for vestibular migraine, including a history of migraines and moderate to severe vestibular symptoms lasting between 5 minutes and 72 hours, with at least half of the episodes associated with migrainous features such as headache, photophobia, phonophobia, or visual aura. Other potential causes should be ruled out.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents because of concerns regarding her hearing. They have noticed she often doesn't respond when spoken to and seems to have difficulty following instructions. Three months ago, she presented with pain and discharge from her right ear and was treated with a course of amoxicillin.
On examination, she is well. Both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey appearance, with absent light reflexes.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otitis media with effusion
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hearing impairment in a child with grey eardrum and absent light reflexes
Otitis media with effusion and other possible causes of conductive hearing loss
The patient is a child who had received treatment for acute otitis media three months ago. The current presentation includes hearing impairment and a grey eardrum with absent light reflexes. Based on these findings, the most likely diagnosis is otitis media with effusion, which is a common sequelae of acute otitis media and a leading cause of hearing impairment in childhood. Other possible causes of conductive hearing loss include otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, and ossicular discontinuity.
Otosclerosis is unlikely in this case because it typically presents in the early twenties and involves the fusion of the stapes with the cochlea, which is not evident on otoscopy. Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, would be visible as a perforation or retraction pocket of the tympanic membrane and requires referral to ENT specialists. Ossicular discontinuity is usually caused by trauma, which is not reported by the patient.
Sensorineural hearing loss is another type of hearing impairment that results from damage to the hair cells in the cochlea or the vestibulocochlear nerve. However, this diagnosis is less likely in this case because the appearance of the eardrum is abnormal, indicating a conductive rather than a sensorineural problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with concerns about his hearing. He has a history of recurrent Ménière disease which has resulted in significant hearing loss. He struggles to hear his coworkers at work and his partner has noticed that he needs to turn the volume up high on the television. He has not considered hearing aids due to negative stories he has heard about them.
Upon reviewing his recent audiogram, it shows an 80 dB hearing loss at the 1,000 Hz and 2,000 Hz frequencies. The patient is interested in being referred for a cochlear implant.
What is the recommended management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her for hearing aids
Explanation:Individuals with severe to profound hearing loss, such as this woman, may benefit from a cochlear implant. It is not necessary for her to wait until her hearing worsens before seeking treatment. Ménière disease-related hearing loss, which is linked to inner ear issues and balance symptoms, can also be improved with a cochlear implant. While cochlear implants are available through the NHS, patients are typically required to have attempted hearing aids before being considered for the procedure.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 136
Incorrect
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Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a feature of uncomplicated cholesteatoma in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otorrhoea
Explanation:Cholesteatoma: Symptoms and Complications
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the collection of epidermal and connective tissues within the middle ear. It can be dangerous as it may cause damage to adjacent vital structures such as the dura, lateral sinus, facial nerve, and semi-circular canal. In severe cases, it may lead to fatal central nervous system complications such as brain abscess and meningitis.
The hallmark symptom of cholesteatoma is a painless otorrhoea, which may be continuous or recurrent. When infected, the infection may be difficult to treat. Hearing loss is also a common symptom, as the cholesteatoma can fill the middle ear space with desquamated epithelium, interfering with sound transmission and causing ossicular damage.
Dizziness and facial nerve palsy may occur as the cholesteatoma grows and erodes into adjacent structures. These symptoms are worrisome as they may indicate more serious complications.
A retracted intact tympanic membrane is not a specific feature of cholesteatoma and may be seen in other conditions such as otitis media with effusion. In cholesteatoma, pearly, white, glistening debris may be visible through the otorrhoea, occupying a perforation in the tympanic membrane, usually in the pars flaccida. Alternatively, there may just be crusting in the uppermost part of the drum beneath which lies a cholesteatoma.
Rhinorrhoea is not a feature of cholesteatoma.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Its symptoms include painless otorrhoea, hearing loss, and possible complications such as dizziness and facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought in by his mother because of dryness and irritation around the corners of his mouth. He doesn't tend to drink much and licks his lips because they're so dry. On examination he has evidence of angular stomatitis.
How would you treat his angular stomatitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe aciclovir cream for 1 week
Explanation:Angular Stomatitis and Candida Infection
Angular stomatitis is a common condition that is often caused by dryness, chapping, and licking of the lips. It can also be caused by salivation and drooling, which can lead to irritation. Candida infection is a common cause of angular stomatitis, although secondary infection with staphylococcal aureus should also be considered.
When it comes to treatment, the clinical scenario in this case is more in keeping with candida infection. Miconazole cream is usually the first line of treatment for candida infection, while mild topical corticosteroids can be used to treat dermatitis. If the condition is unresponsive to miconazole alone, hydrocortisone can be added.
It’s important to note that contact dermatitis is often a differential diagnosis for angular stomatitis. Aciclovir cream is used for herpes simplex lesions, while fusidic acid can be used to treat small areas of staphylococcal infection. Hydromol is a simple emollient and will not treat candida infections.
In some cases, no treatment is needed, and angular cheilitis resolves by itself. However, most cases are accompanied by superimposed candida infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 138
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old woman who has come to see you after the nurse was unable to remove all the earwax from her left ear. She came to see you for advice on what to do next.
According to NICE, which is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer manual syringing
Explanation:Guidelines for earwax Removal
According to NICE guidelines, if earwax irrigation is unsuccessful, patients should repeat the use of wax softeners or instil water into the ear canal 15 minutes before attempting ear irrigation again. If the second attempt is also unsuccessful, patients should be referred to a specialist ear care service or ENT. It is important to note that manual syringing should not be offered as a method of earwax removal. These guidelines aim to ensure safe and effective earwax removal practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of hearing loss in his right ear for the past 2 days. He denies any history of trauma and reports feeling generally well. He also reports experiencing tinnitus and vertigo in his affected ear.
During the examination, the patient has a moderate amount of earwax in both ears. There is no tenderness in his pinna, tragal or mastoid areas. The tympanic membrane appears normal in the small amount that is visible. The patient has evident hearing loss in his right ear.
When performing Weber's test, the patient localizes the sound to his left side. Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, with air conduction being better than bone.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:When a patient experiences sudden hearing loss, it is crucial to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. If it is sensorineural, urgent referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.
To identify sensorineural hearing loss, both Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are used. If the sound is louder on one side in Weber’s test, it could indicate either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. Rinne’s test is then used to differentiate between the two. In sensorineural hearing loss, both air and bone conduction are equally diminished, resulting in a false positive result. In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is better than air conduction.
Ear irrigation is not appropriate for sensorineural hearing loss as it is not caused by earwax. Intranasal corticosteroids are also not effective in treating acute hearing loss, as their main role is in managing eustachian tube dysfunction.
While routine referral to an ENT specialist is necessary, sudden hearing loss always requires urgent referral.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 140
Incorrect
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Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed with bilateral impacted wax. Despite using olive oil drops for a week, there was no improvement.
What other options can be considered at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate drops
Explanation:When attempting to remove impacted earwax, it is recommended to try olive oil drops first. If this method is unsuccessful, other options such as almond oil drops, sodium bicarbonate drops, and sodium chloride drops can be considered. Otomize and betamethasone ear drops are commonly used for treating otitis externa. It is important to avoid attempting to remove earwax through ear candling or the use of cotton buds.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.
During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.
What is the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 142
Incorrect
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Which medication is most strongly linked to an increased risk of cleft palate during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Medications and their effects on pregnancy
The incidence of orofacial malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate is about 1:1000. While some cases are obvious due to external appearance, isolated palatal defects require close inspection and palpation of the palate during neonatal examination to be detected.
Phenytoin has been linked to congenital defects, particularly cleft lip and palate. Antiepileptic drugs, in general, have been studied closely with regard to congenital malformations, and evidence suggests that monotherapy with an antiepileptic drug during pregnancy doubles the risk of major congenital malformation, while polytherapy triples the risk.
Aspirin can be used in pregnancy, but caution should be exercised as it can cause impaired platelet function and risk of haemorrhage. Carbimazole can be used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism, but it has been linked to aplasia cutis of the newborn. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks. Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent that can be used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy.
It is important to consider the potential effects of medications on pregnancy and to weigh the risks and benefits before prescribing them. Close monitoring and follow-up are also necessary to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has been going on for 6 months. She reports experiencing episodes that last from a few minutes to several hours, accompanied by tinnitus and decreased hearing in her left ear. She denies any identifiable triggers that worsen her symptoms. She has no significant medical history. Her ear and cranial nerve examinations are normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ménière's disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours, accompanied by unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. This clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which should be confirmed by referral to an ENT specialist and formal audiometry. The cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it may be associated with raised endolymph pressure in the inner ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, labyrinthitis, and vestibular neuronitis are not likely diagnoses, as they present with different symptoms and characteristics.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden onset dizziness and nausea when she rolls over in bed in the morning, which goes away after about 20 seconds if she keeps her head still. After these episodes, she feels unsteady and light-headed for several hours. The patient has a history of recurrent otitis media and her family has a history of otosclerosis.
What is the most crucial initial test that needs to be done?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The presence of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss are key indicators for the diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which is a common cause of dizziness. Other factors such as recurrent otitis media and family history of otosclerosis may be misleading. Audiometry is a recommended test for Meniere’s disease, while CT head is useful for otosclerosis and MRI scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for acoustic neuroma.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with unilateral nasal obstruction caused by soft tissue swelling and bleeding from the same side of the nose. What is the most suitable next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages
Explanation:Unilateral Nasal Obstruction: Possible Causes and Management
Unilateral nasal obstruction can be caused by various factors, including nasal polyps, infection, and neoplastic processes. If the obstruction is accompanied by soft tissue blockage and unilateral epistaxis, the possibility of a neoplastic process should be considered, and direct visualisation of the area in an ear, nose, and throat clinic is necessary. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a rare but possible cause of unilateral nasal obstruction.
Aside from neoplastic processes, other nasal tumors that may cause unilateral nasal obstruction include inverted papilloma, sarcoma, lymphoma, olfactory neuroblastoma, and juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
Using nasal decongestants for prolonged periods is not recommended as it may cause rebound congestion of the nasal mucosa. Antibiotics are not normally indicated for nasal blockage caused by the common cold, influenza virus, or rhinosinusitis. Topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in allergic rhinitis and some cases of vasomotor rhinitis, while corticosteroid drops are used in the medical management of nasal polyps. Oral steroids are not typically used in the management of any form of nasal obstruction.
In summary, the management of unilateral nasal obstruction depends on the underlying cause, and direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of experiencing dizzy spells for the past 4 days. She reports feeling nauseous and seeing the room spinning for a brief period before returning to normal. The patient specifically notes that looking down seems to trigger these episodes. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in the ears or cranial nerves. Her blood pressure measures at 126/82 mmHg. What diagnostic test can be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dix- Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is employed for the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), while the Epley manoeuvre or Brandt Daroff exercises are utilized for its treatment. It should be noted that these manoeuvres are not used for the diagnosis of BPPV. Simmond’s test is utilized for the diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture, while Finkelstein’s test is employed for the diagnosis of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with acute tonsillitis.
She has been feeling unwell for the past five days with a high fever and a sore throat. Upon examination, you notice marked tonsillar exudate bilaterally and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Given her condition, you believe that antibiotic treatment is necessary. However, her medical notes indicate a previous penicillin allergy. What would be an appropriate antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Penicillin V remains the preferred antibiotic for treating sore throat due to its effectiveness, affordability, safety, and narrow spectrum. This helps prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. However, individuals who are allergic to penicillin should take either erythromycin or clarithromycin for five days. The clinical knowledge summaries website provides evidence-based recommendations for antibiotic selection, drawing from guidance from SIGN, Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health, and Public Health England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with nasal obstruction presents to you in surgery. Examining him, you find what you think are nasal polyps.
Which of the following statements regarding nasal polyps is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyps may be associated with cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Nasal polyps are growths that develop in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. They are often a sign of underlying inflammation and can cause progressive nasal obstruction. While they can occur at any age, they are relatively uncommon in children. However, in children with cystic fibrosis, rates of nasal polyps can be as high as 50%.
Symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, loss of smell, and postnasal drip. They are not typically associated with pain or bleeding, which may suggest neoplastic growths or foreign bodies. While surgical polypectomy can provide temporary relief, recurrence is common. The underlying inflammation should be targeted with topical corticosteroids, which can improve symptoms and reduce the risk of recurrence.
If a child presents with nasal polyps, it is important to test for cystic fibrosis. While there is no single curative treatment for nasal polyps, early detection and management can improve quality of life and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural deafness. She reports that her headaches have started recently and are accompanied by vomiting and a change in posture. Additionally, she experiences pulse synchronous tinnitus and feels that her headaches are becoming more severe.
Upon examination, there is no papilloedema and her blood pressure is within normal limits. The patient has been taking oral contraceptive pills for the past five years.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) (to be performed within 2 weeks)
Explanation:Suspected Intracranial Tumour in a Middle-Aged Woman
The patient in question is a middle-aged woman who is showing signs of a unilateral Intracranial tumour, such as an acoustic neuroma. However, given her age, a more aggressive cerebellopontine angle tumour may be more likely. The absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of an Intracranial tumour.
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access MRI or CT scan should be considered within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer. While admitting the patient as an emergency may be a practical option, adhering to NICE guidance suggests that an urgent direct access MRI is the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the clinic with an enlarged and discoloured filiform papillae on his tongue. The upper surface of his tongue appears black in colour, with the tip and sides being spared. Although he has no symptoms, he is worried about the appearance. The patient has no significant medical history, takes no medication, and is in good health. There are no oral cavity or tongue-related focal lesions. What is the best initial management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide advice on good oral hygiene
Explanation:Black hairy tongue is a harmless condition that causes enlargement and discoloration of the filiform papillae of the tongue, resulting in a hairy appearance. Also known as lingua villosa nigra, this condition can be caused by certain medications, poor oral hygiene, tobacco and alcohol use, colored drinks, dehydration, and hyposalivation. The use of chlorhexidine or peroxidase-containing mouthwashes can also aggravate the condition. However, hairy tongue is typically self-limiting and can be managed by advising good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing, gentle tongue scraping, and avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 151
Incorrect
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You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.
What would be your initial recommendation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Betahistine
Explanation:To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 3 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2 kilograms, which he attributes to decreased food intake. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the consultation, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Explanation:When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia and weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as these are common symptoms. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. While achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally, and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, oesophageal spasm is characterized by pain during swallowing.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.
To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his dad, reporting that he has been unable to breathe through either nostril since he caught a cold three days ago. During examination, the doctor observes smooth pink swellings in the lower part of the lateral side of each nostril. The swellings are tender, but there is no evidence of ulceration. The boy is otherwise healthy, with no fever or facial pain, and he has never had a nosebleed before.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Management of Inferior Turbinate Bones in Children
Description: The inferior turbinate bones are often visible in children and do not require any treatment. If a child has recent unexplained symptoms on one side of the nose, such as a blockage or bloody discharge, urgent referral to ENT is necessary to exclude nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Nasal steroids are indicated for allergic rhinitis and swelling associated with nasal polyps, but not for normal appearances of the nasal mucosa. Oral steroids are not indicated in this case. Nasal polyps are unusual in children and their presence suggests the possibility of underlying disease, such as cystic fibrosis. Referral for nasal polypectomy is only necessary if the polyps are persistent and causing obstruction that has not responded to steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his roommate to the emergency room with an overdose of an unknown substance.
His roommate found him unconscious in their apartment this morning and immediately called for an ambulance. There was an empty bottle of unlabelled pills on the kitchen counter which the patient admitted to taking.
The patient is currently unresponsive and has shallow breathing. He is hooked up to a ventilator and his vital signs are being closely monitored. There is evidence of recent vomiting and he has a high fever.
The patient has a history of suicidal ideation and his roommate is not sure where he obtained the pills from. Which of the following has he taken in overdose?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin Overdose: Symptoms and Management
Aspirin overdose can be potentially fatal, as its effects are dose-related. Unlike with paracetamol, there are many early clinical features of aspirin overdose. These include nausea and vomiting, sweating, hyperventilation, vertigo, and tinnitus. More severe manifestations of overdose include lethargy, coma, seizures, hypotension, heart block, and pulmonary edema.
Immediate referral to the hospital and close monitoring with supportive measures are necessary for managing aspirin overdose. In severe cases, dialysis may be indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of hypertension visits the surgery with a complaint of hoarseness that has been present for 3 weeks. The hoarseness started after she had an upper respiratory tract infection 7 weeks ago. She is in good health and doesn't smoke. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ear, nose and throat
Explanation:Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.
If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has unilateral hearing loss of gradual onset, but most noticeably for the last six months. His hearing test shows 60-dB unilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss.
What is the single most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the head
Explanation:Management of Unilateral Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss can be a sign of an acoustic neuroma, a tumour of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Therefore, any patient presenting with this symptom should undergo an MRI scan of the head to investigate the cause. Betahistine is not appropriate for this condition, but may be used in patients with Ménière’s disease. Hearing aid provision may be considered if the MRI is normal and the diagnosis is presbyacusis. High-dose oral steroids are not indicated for gradual-onset hearing loss. Grommet insertion is not a suitable treatment for sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see the GP because of a painful ulcer on her lower lip. It has been present for 5-6 days. On examination, it is erythematous with indurated papules about 4mm in diameter. The GP takes a look and diagnoses an aphthous ulcer.
Within what timescale would most minor aphous ulcers (2-10mm) take to heal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7-14 days
Explanation:Aphthous Ulcers: Painful Lesions on Oral Mucosa
Aphthous ulcers are painful ulcerations that can occur on the labial, buccal, or lingual mucosa. These lesions can present as erythematous indurated papules and can be solitary or multiple. Minor ulcers, which are between 2-10mm in diameter, typically heal on their own within 7-10 days, although some may take up to 14 days. Major ulcers, which are over 10mm in diameter and are rare, can take 10-30 days to heal. Treatment for aphthous ulcers is palliative, with pain relief and local topical anaesthetics being the primary methods used. To learn more about aphthous ulcers, visit the NICE CKS or UCLH websites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with a four month history of left sided hearing loss. He denies any pain, discharge tinnitus, vertigo or other symptoms of note. He is an ex-smoker with a 45 year pack history.
On examination otoscopy of the right ear appears normal whilst the left ear shows a dullness to the tympanic membrane with air bubbles within the middle ear, the external auditory canal is clear. Rinne's test shows bone conduction better than air conduction in the left ear and air conduction better than bone conduction in the right ear. Weber's test lateralises to the left.
What is the most appropriate cause of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two week wait referral to local ENT service
Explanation:Understanding Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Referral Criteria
Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Some of the common symptoms of head and neck cancer include a persistent sore throat, hoarseness, neck lump, and mouth ulcer.
To ensure timely diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established referral criteria for suspected cancer pathways. For instance, individuals aged 45 and above with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out laryngeal cancer.
Similarly, people with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for possible oral cancer. Dentists should also consider an urgent referral for people with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia.
Lastly, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump should be referred for an appointment within two weeks to rule out thyroid cancer. By following these referral criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that individuals with head and neck cancer receive prompt and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 27 year-old male patient complains of sudden hearing loss in his right ear without any prior symptoms of cold, fever, headache or earache. Upon examination, his ear canal and tympanic membrane appear to be normal. Weber testing indicates left-sided localization. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT and start high dose oral steroids
Explanation:The individual is experiencing sudden sensorineural hearing loss, which is typically of unknown cause. It is recommended that all patients begin treatment promptly with high dose steroids (60mg/day) for seven days, as this has been shown to improve outcomes. An ENT evaluation should be scheduled immediately to conduct pure tone audiometry testing and to rule out the presence of an acoustic neuroma through an MRI. In cases where oral steroids are ineffective, intra-tympanic steroids may be administered. Aciclovir is not typically prescribed as there is no evidence to support its efficacy.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old, previously healthy, female presents with a nine day history of fever, sore throat and fatigue.
On examination of her throat, there are palatal petechiae and white tonsillar exudates. Two days ago, another doctor prescribed amoxicillin, and she has since developed a widespread maculopapular rash.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common disease that affects young adults. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is excreted through nasopharyngeal secretions, primarily saliva, and can be transmitted through person-to-person contact, earning it the nickname kissing disease. While some carriers may not exhibit symptoms, others may experience acute illness characterized by sore throat, fever, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, and haemolytic anaemia. Rashes may also occur, particularly if the patient is given amoxicillin or ampicillin, which should not be confused with the disease.
When diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses such as streptococcal sore throat, HIV seroconversion illness, diphtheria, and leukaemia. These conditions share many common symptoms, but the appearance of a rash after the patient has been given amoxicillin can help confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the signs and symptoms of infectious mononucleosis and its differential diagnoses can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment. She was diagnosed with Bell's palsy three weeks ago after experiencing left-sided facial weakness. The GP prescribed a 10-day course of oral prednisolone and provided eye care advice. However, the patient reports no improvement in her symptoms since then.
During the examination, the patient appears healthy but still has left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. The rest of her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there is no indication of middle ear disease.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist
Explanation:If a patient with Bell’s palsy doesn’t show any improvement in paralysis after 3 weeks, it is recommended to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist. This will allow for further investigation into other potential causes of facial weakness, including neuroimaging. It is not appropriate to reassure the patient that symptoms can take up to 3 months to resolve if there has been no improvement. Prescribing a further course of prednisolone or treating with oral aciclovir is not recommended. Referring to a plastic surgeon may be appropriate for facial reconstructive surgery, but usually only after a longer period of residual paralysis.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.
During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis
Explanation:The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.
Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining that he has woken up with a ‘wonky’ smile. On examination, the right side of his mouth is drooping; there is right-sided facial weakness and he cannot lift his eyebrow on the right. He has no vesicles in his ears or on his face and is otherwise well, with no other neurological findings.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Facial Paralysis: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms
Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including stroke, brain tumours, and viral infections. The most common type of facial paralysis is Bell’s palsy, which is often idiopathic in nature. In Bell’s palsy, the brow is paralyzed due to a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. While the underlying cause is often unknown, viruses such as herpes simplex type 1 have been implicated. Other potential causes include mononeuropathy in diabetes or sarcoid, Lyme disease, and posterior fossa tumours.
Fortunately, the majority of patients with Bell’s palsy recover significantly within six weeks to three months, with around 70% making a full recovery. Treatment typically involves prednisolone and vigilant eye care.
It’s important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other potential causes of facial paralysis, such as stroke or brain tumours. In a stroke, the brow would not be paralyzed due to an upper motor neuron lesion. While a posterior fossa tumour can cause facial palsy, it is less common than Bell’s palsy. Paralysis is a nonspecific diagnosis and not the best answer, while Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with the varicella-zoster virus and typically presents with concomitant shingles, which is not present in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 164
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 52-year-old woman who presents to you with a 4 month history of nasal congestion affecting her left nostril. She reports a reduction in her sense of smell on the left side as well. Her symptoms have been gradually worsening. Sarah is a non-smoker.
Upon examination, there is slight mucosal oedema but no significant nasal inflammation. There are no focal neurological signs.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis should be cautious of experiencing unilateral symptoms, as they are a warning sign. According to NICE guidelines, if the symptoms are not typical of chronic sinusitis and there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ear, nose and throat specialist to rule out other potential diagnoses. Urgent referral is necessary if the patient experiences unilateral symptoms, blood-stained discharge, crusting, orbital symptoms, or neurological symptoms. In Paul’s case, he has been experiencing worsening unilateral symptoms for over 3 months, which indicates the need for an urgent referral to an ENT specialist to rule out the possibility of malignancy.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 25 year old male smoker presents with multiple, painful aphthous ulcers, he puts this down to stress at work. He only gets ulcers on his tongue and oral mucosa. He is otherwise well. He has never had any joint or bowel symptoms. He reports several previous episodes similar to this one, with painful oral ulceration lasting a week or two, dating back to when he was a teenager.
What signs or symptoms should prompt an immediate referral to secondary care for this 25 year old male smoker with recurrent painful oral ulcers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained red and white patches of the oral mucosa that are painful, swollen, or bleeding
Explanation:To identify potential oral ulceration red flags, one should look out for unexplained ulcers or masses in the oral mucosa that persist for more than three weeks, as well as red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding. If symptoms or signs related to the oral cavity persist for more than six weeks and a definitive diagnosis of a benign lesion cannot be made, this is also a red flag. While being a smoker is a risk factor for aphthous ulcers, first onset over the age of 30 is atypical and may warrant consideration of an alternative cause, such as trauma to the mouth. However, it is not necessarily an indication for referral. It is important to note that not all ulcers respond to corticosteroids, but if an ulcer has persisted for more than three weeks, an urgent referral is necessary as prolonged ulceration could be indicative of malignancy.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 166
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old man who was seen by a colleague three days ago for unilateral ear pain and yellow discharge, with reduction in hearing that side. He was given amoxicillin 500mg TDS to treat this but has come to see you today as the symptoms have not improved. He has previously had a renal transplant for which he is on medications for but he is otherwise well in himself.
Which is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue amoxicillin and review in 3 days
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hearing Loss in Immunocompromised Patients
According to the NICE guidelines on hearing loss in adults, immunocompromised patients with otalgia and otorrhoea that has not responded to treatment within 72 hours should be immediately referred for further evaluation. This recommendation is particularly important for patients who are on immunosuppressants, as they may be at a higher risk for complications related to ear infections.
It is crucial for healthcare providers to follow these guidelines to ensure that immunocompromised patients receive prompt and appropriate care. Delayed treatment can lead to further complications, such as hearing loss or even life-threatening infections. By referring these patients for further evaluation, healthcare providers can help to prevent these adverse outcomes and improve the overall quality of care for immunocompromised patients with hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old Asian female presents with gingival hypertrophy. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Causes of Gum Hypertrophy
Gum hypertrophy, or an abnormal increase in the size of the gums, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of certain drugs such as phenytoin, which is used to treat seizures. Acute myeloid leukaemias can also lead to gum hypertrophy.
Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can result in swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Instead, petechiae, or small red or purple spots, may appear on the mucosae.
Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine, a medication used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder, is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy. However, it can cause other side effects such as ataxia, drowsiness, and blood dyscrasias.
In summary, while gum hypertrophy can be caused by various factors, phenytoin and acute myeloid leukaemias are the most likely culprits. Scurvy may cause swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with left-sided hearing loss that has been gradually worsening over the past few months. He reports no pain or discharge and has been using olive oil drops for three weeks with no improvement. Upon examination, the right ear appears normal, but the left external auditory canal is obstructed by impacted earwax.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest sodium bicarbonate drops
Explanation:When olive oil drops fail to remove impacted earwax, sodium bicarbonate drops can be used as an alternative treatment. This is recommended by NICE as a first line treatment for 3-5 days. Sodium bicarbonate drops can be purchased over-the-counter without a prescription.
In the past, GP surgeries would offer ear canal irrigation as a treatment option. However, this has been slowly withdrawn in recent years. If drops alone have failed, ear canal irrigation may still be recommended if there is local provision.
earwax removal by ENT is generally not funded on the NHS unless certain qualifying criteria are met, such as previous ear surgery. Antibiotic ear drops are not indicated as there is no evidence of infection.
Ear candling is not recommended as a treatment option.
Understanding earwax and Its Impacts
earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus, and vertigo that have been present for the past two months and have worsened recently. Upon examination, there is no wax in either auditory canal, and the tympanic membranes appear normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT
Explanation:If a patient is suspected to have an acoustic neuroma, it is crucial to refer them to an ENT specialist as soon as possible. The ENT specialist can conduct necessary tests such as audiograms and imaging to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. An ECG is not required based on the patient’s history, and hospitalization is not necessary. While an audiogram may be helpful, it is best to refer the patient directly to ENT for an MRI Head and audiogram together. A trial of medication and follow-up would not be appropriate in this case, as prompt initiation of further investigations is necessary. Meniere’s disease is a potential alternative diagnosis, but the constant and progressive nature of the patient’s symptoms is not typical of Meniere’s, which is usually episodic.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.
During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 171
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her mother to request a referral for an adenotonsillectomy. She has experienced 3 severe episodes of acute tonsillitis in the past year and 4 episodes the year before, resulting in her missing a total of 5 days of school. Despite this, she has been informed that she doesn't meet the criteria for an adenotonsillectomy. What is the reason for her not meeting the referral criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needs 5 or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding 2 years
Explanation:The criteria for adenotonsillectomy in recurrent tonsillitis, as recommended by SIGN, state that a patient should have at least five or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding two years. Jodie, who has had three and four bouts of acute tonsillitis over the past two years, doesn’t meet this minimum requirement.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He is worried about some discoloration of the oral mucosa that he has noticed while brushing his teeth. These have been present for three weeks and have not been associated with any bleeding.
He has a history of hypertension for which he takes medication, but is otherwise healthy. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks a glass of wine each evening.
On examination, there are several patches within the oral mucosa that have either increased reddening or pallor. The diagnosis of erythroplakia is made. There is no lymphadenopathy, but the examination is otherwise unremarkable.
Investigations reveal:
- Hb 140 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 8.9 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 310 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 140 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 90 µmol/L (70-110)
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (under 2 week wait)
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Management of Oral Lesions
Consider an urgent referral for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist in people who have a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia. Patients who have other symptoms, such as contact bleeding or unexplained tooth mobility with symptoms persisting for longer than three weeks, should also be referred urgently.
Whilst oral candida is a possibility, the clinical picture as described doesn’t fit with this as an underlying diagnosis. Fluconazole is unlikely to have any impact on the appearance of the oral mucosa, and neither is regular mouth rinsing. However, it is good practice to rinse the mouth after using an inhaler.
Minor lymph node enlargement is a common occurrence, and urgent referral to a haematologist is unwarranted given the normal blood picture. Although urgent intervention is not required, reassurance is inappropriate because of the need to confirm the diagnosis underlying the lesions within the oral cavity.
In summary, it is important to promptly refer patients with suspicious oral lesions for assessment by a dentist to rule out oral cancer. Other symptoms such as contact bleeding or unexplained tooth mobility should also be referred urgently. Regular mouth rinsing is good practice, but it is unlikely to have an impact on the appearance of the oral mucosa. Finally, minor lymph node enlargement is common and doesn’t warrant urgent referral to a haematologist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy has been unwell and crying during the night and this has continued during the day with some benefit from paracetamol and ibuprofen. He has a cold. His temperature is 38C and both tympanic membranes are inflamed but not bulging.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Acute Otitis Media in Children: When to Prescribe and Which Antibiotic to Use
Acute otitis media (AOM) is a common childhood infection, and antibiotics are often prescribed to treat it. However, a Cochrane review found that antibiotics only provide a small benefit, with an increase in resolution at 1 week of only 13%. Two trials found that the numbers needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one treatment failure ranged from 8 to 17.
Despite these findings, there are certain indications for prescribing antibiotics. Children under 2 years of age with bilateral disease or any child with significant systemic symptoms (fever above 38.5oC, vomiting) or bulging drums or otorrhoea should receive antibiotics. For most other children with mild disease, a wait-and-see policy is justified. Antibacterial treatment may be started after 4 days if there has been no improvement, and a delayed prescription is an option.
When antibiotics are used, a broad-spectrum antibiotic is prescribed for 5 days. The most common pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Amoxicillin is still the antibiotic of choice, with clarithromycin for penicillin-allergic patients. If there is no improvement within 48 hours or symptoms reoccur within 14 days, treatment failure may have occurred, and co-amoxiclav should be considered.
It is important to note that ciprofloxacin doesn’t have a license in young children for this indication. Overall, the decision to prescribe antibiotics for AOM should be based on individual patient factors and the potential risks and benefits of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who are worried about her constant tugging on her left ear and increased fussiness over the past 24 hours.
During the examination, the child's temperature is found to be 38.5ºC, and the left tympanic membrane appears red. There is no discharge in the ear canal, the right ear is normal, and there are no signs of mastoiditis. The child has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular analgesia, call back in 3 days time if the symptoms are not resolving
Explanation:Parents should be informed that antibiotics are not always necessary for treating acute otitis media in children. The condition typically resolves on its own within 24-72 hours without the need for antibiotics. Pain relief medication can be used to alleviate discomfort and reduce fever during this time. However, if symptoms persist for more than 4 days or worsen, parents should seek medical attention. Immediate antibiotic prescription is not recommended unless the child is under 2 years old, has bilateral otitis media, otorrhoea, or is immunocompromised. Amoxicillin is the first-line therapy, while erythromycin and clarithromycin are alternative options for children allergic to penicillin. Topical antibiotics are not recommended for treating otitis media, and oral antibiotics should be used if necessary. Referral to the emergency department is not necessary unless there are signs of complications such as acute mastoiditis, meningitis, or facial nerve paralysis. Swabbing the ear is not useful, even if there is discharge present, as the condition is likely to have resolved before culture results become available.
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass pollen allergy) has just started. Despite starting her nasal steroid, nasal antihistamine, and oral antihistamine 2 weeks ago, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. She is getting married in a few days and is looking for a quick solution to improve her nasal itching and watery discharge.
What would you recommend as a possible option for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer short course of oral prednisolone
Explanation:When standard treatment fails to control allergic rhinitis, it may be necessary to use short courses of steroids to manage important life events. However, it is important to note that oral steroids should only be used for a brief period if the symptoms are severe and significantly impacting the person’s quality of life. There is no evidence to suggest that switching to a different steroid nasal spray would be more effective. Chlorphenamine, a sedating antihistamine, would not be suitable in this situation. Intramuscular steroids are not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis from repeated doses. While immunotherapy may be an option in the long term, it will not provide immediate relief in time for a significant event such as a wedding.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both nostrils. She has prominent Little’s area vessels on both sides of her nasal septum. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unilateral nasal cautery and antibiotic cream
Explanation:Treatment Options for Epistaxis (Nosebleeds)
Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be a common occurrence and can often be managed with simple interventions. Here are some treatment options:
Unilateral Nasal Cautery and Antibiotic Cream
Chemical cautery using a silver nitrate stick can be used to produce local chemical damage in the mucosa. After cautery, Naseptin® cream should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for ten days. This treatment option is effective for most cases of epistaxis.Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Referral
Referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist should be considered if the person has recurrent episodes of epistaxis and is at high risk of having a serious underlying cause.Anterior Nasal Packing
If bleeding continues despite cautery or if a bleeding point cannot be seen, the nose can be packed with nasal sponges or ribbon gauze.Bilateral Nasal Cautery
Only one side of the septum should be cauterized, as there is a small risk of septal perforation resulting from decreased vascularization to the septal cartilage. A 4–6-week interval between cautery treatments is recommended.Iron Tablets
Iron tablets are not appropriate without a diagnosis of anemia.Managing Epistaxis: Treatment Options to Consider
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 177
Incorrect
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Choose from the options below the one that is an appropriate reason for ROUTINE referral to the nearby ENT department for a patient in their 60s.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An intermittent feeling of ‘something stuck in the throat’
Explanation:Urgent Referral Criteria for Suspicious Symptoms
When it comes to identifying potentially serious health issues, it’s important to know which symptoms require urgent referral. In the case of the last three presentations, all of them are recognized as needing immediate attention under the 2-week-wait criteria. However, it’s worth noting that acute otitis externa can typically be managed in primary care.
In terms of the throat symptom, it’s important to conduct a flexible laryngoscopy examination of the pharynx, which means that a non-urgent referral is necessary. The intermittent nature of the symptom suggests that it may be a benign problem, such as a globus sensation.
If you’re concerned about cancer, it’s worth checking out the external links for more information on upper gastrointestinal tract cancers and head and neck cancers. By staying informed and knowing when to seek medical attention, you can help ensure that you receive the care you need when you need it most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with a persistent sore throat. He had visited three weeks ago and was diagnosed with acute tonsillitis by another doctor, for which he was prescribed amoxicillin. At that time, some left submandibular swelling was observed.
The patient is a heavy smoker, consuming around 40 cigarettes per day. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has been experiencing a sore throat and pain while swallowing for the past three months.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular. He has heavily nicotine-stained fingers and appears very thin with a BMI of 20 kg/m2. There is noticeable left submandibular gland enlargement, which has apparently grown even more since his last consultation.
Investigations reveal:
- Hb 114 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 6.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 189 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
A chest x-ray taken three months earlier was normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viscosity and autoimmune profile
Explanation:Referral for Suspicion of Squamous Cell Carcinoma
In patients who are heavy smokers, squamous cell carcinoma should be considered as a possible diagnosis until proven otherwise. If a patient presents with an unexplained lump in the neck, persistent swelling in the parotid or submandibular gland, persistently sore or painful throat, or unexplained ulceration or patches in the oral mucosa, referral within two weeks is advised. Waiting for outpatient imaging results may cause an unacceptable delay in therapeutic intervention. In such cases, direct referral to the ENT department is recommended. Further oral antibiotics are unlikely to be of value, and checking viscosity may only add to the delay in referral. Therefore, prompt referral is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child has a foul-smelling unilateral nasal discharge, which he has had for the last week. Nothing obvious is visible apart from discharge.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Examination of the nose under general anaesthetic
Explanation:Management of Nasal Foreign Bodies in Children: An Overview
Nasal foreign bodies are a common occurrence in Preschool children, with beads, buttons, sweets, nuts, and seeds being the most commonly encountered objects. The management of nasal foreign bodies involves careful removal of the object without causing any further harm to the child. In cases where the foreign body is visible, a hook or thin forceps can be used to grasp and remove the object. However, if the foreign body is not visible, an examination under general anaesthetic may be necessary.
It is important to note that certain foreign bodies, such as small button batteries, can cause tissue damage if left in the nasal cavity. In such cases, immediate removal of the battery is necessary. Nasal decongestant, CT scans, oral antibiotics, and saline nasal washouts are not appropriate management strategies for nasal foreign bodies. Nasal congestion may only be used as an adjunct to examination and removal of the foreign body. CT scans should be avoided in children due to their high X-ray exposure. The use of oral antibiotics may delay removal of the foreign body, and saline nasal washouts carry a significant risk of aspiration or choking.
In conclusion, the management of nasal foreign bodies in children requires careful and prompt removal of the object. An examination under general anaesthetic may be necessary in cases where the foreign body is not visible. It is important to avoid unnecessary interventions and to prioritize the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it is observed that he has poor dental hygiene, bleeding gums, and extensive gingival ulceration. He also has a fever of 38.0ºC. You suggest that he should visit a dentist. What other treatment alternatives should be provided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash
Explanation:Understanding Gingivitis and its Management
Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.
For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.
It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game. He has noticeable swelling and redness in his left ear. Upon examination, it appears to be an auricular hematoma. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:The RCGP curriculum includes a specific mention of auricular haematomas.
Auricular haematomas are frequently observed in individuals who participate in rugby or wrestling. It is crucial to seek immediate medical attention to prevent the development of ‘cauliflower ear’. The management of auricular haematomas necessitates an evaluation by an ENT specialist on the same day. Incision and drainage have been demonstrated to be more effective than needle aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
Select the most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to hospital for admission
Explanation:When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations
Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.
According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.
It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's palsy three months ago. The patient was treated with prednisolone and has seen some improvement in their facial weakness, but still experiences some weakness in their left facial muscles (power 4/5). The patient is interested in knowing if there are any additional tests or referrals that could be beneficial.
What is the most suitable next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure, but explain that if symptoms persist in four months' time you will refer to plastic surgery
Explanation:If a patient with Bell’s palsy experiences residual weakness after six months, it is appropriate to refer them to a plastics specialist. It is important to provide reassurance and safety netting regarding the referral. However, ordering an MRI head is not necessary if the symptoms are consistent with Bell’s palsy and the patient has responded to treatment. Neurology referral is also not necessary unless there is doubt about the initial diagnosis or if there are other clinical features suggestive of stroke. It is important to monitor patients with persistent symptoms and refer them to a specialist if necessary. Simply reassuring the patient may not be appropriate in cases where specialist review is required.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has been unwell with earache and a fever. The earache has improved since her ear started discharging. The eardrum is not visible because of the amount of discharge. She is prescribed an antibiotic and given advice about symptom control.
Select from the list the single most appropriate further management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Further review is only necessary if the parents are not happy with progress
Explanation:Complications and Management of Acute Otitis Media in Children
Acute otitis media is a common childhood infection that can cause severe pain and discomfort. One well-recognized complication is the bursting of the eardrum, which can provide relief from the pressure and pain. While most cases of acute otitis media resolve on their own, some children may develop chronic suppurative otitis media.
Treatment options include myringotomy, but follow-up is only necessary if symptoms persist or recur despite antibiotic treatment. Parents may return early due to safety netting or anxiety, but checking for resolution at 48 hours is too soon. At three weeks, there may still be a perforation and/or evidence of hearing loss.
Fortunately, most perforations spontaneously close within a month, although there may be evidence of middle ear effusion for some time afterward. If a child has ongoing hearing problems, they should be referred for formal assessment with audiometry.
In summary, acute otitis media can be managed effectively with appropriate treatment and monitoring. Parents should be aware of potential complications and seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
Managing Acute Otitis Media in Children: Complications and Follow-Up
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with tinnitus. No subjective hearing loss or other symptoms are reported. He is systemically well. He has had tinnitus for several years but over time the tinnitus has had an increasing psychological effect on his well-being. He has previously been seen recently for the first time with regards his tinnitus and was given tinnitus support (information provision and discussion of management options) and was also referred for audiological assessment which is pending.
He is not suicidal but has become increasingly distressed by the tinnitus which is persistent and intrusive. He struggles to sleep and has become increasingly depressed. It has got to the point over the last week where due to his tinnitus he can't cope to go to work and is spending days at home feeling unable to do anything productive. He has no past history of any mental health problems and just wants to feel better and for his tinnitus to be less intrusive.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently (to be seen within 2 weeks) for specialist assessment
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Tinnitus Management
NICE has recently released guidelines for the assessment, investigation, and management of tinnitus. Tinnitus support is a crucial aspect of these guidelines, which involves healthcare professionals discussing difficulties, goals, and management plans with patients. It is important to note that the psychological impact of tinnitus should not be overlooked, and the guidelines include consideration of psychological aspects. Those with tinnitus associated with a high risk of suicide should be referred immediately for crisis mental health input. Additionally, those with tinnitus that affects their mental well-being and prevents them from carrying out daily activities should be referred for further assessment and management within two weeks. It is important to note that betahistine should not be used to treat tinnitus alone, as evidence suggests that it doesn’t improve symptoms and may cause adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has had frequent upper respiratory tract infections and also frequently complains of earache.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME) rather than acute otitis media.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of bubbles and a fluid level behind the eardrum
Explanation:Understanding Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Otitis media with effusion, commonly known as glue ear, is a condition characterized by inflammation of the middle ear and the accumulation of fluid in the middle-ear cleft. This condition is prevalent in young children, with most experiencing at least one episode during early childhood. Although most episodes are brief, symptoms such as earache and hearing loss can occur. Hearing loss can be significant, especially if it persists for more than a month and affects both ears. However, not all cases of glue ear present with hearing loss.
It is important to note that a normal-looking eardrum doesn’t necessarily exclude the possibility of OME. Otoscopic features of OME may include opacification of the drum, loss of the light reflex, indrawn or retracted drum, decreased mobility of the drum, bubbles or fluid level behind the drum, yellow or amber color change to the drum, and fullness or bulging of the drum. It is worth noting that acute otitis media may also present with earache and hearing loss, and the eardrum may appear redder and bulge.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and signs of OME is crucial in diagnosing and managing this condition. If you suspect that you or your child may have glue ear, seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 187
Incorrect
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What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral otosclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rinne negative both sides with central Weber
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and its Effects on Hearing
Otosclerosis is a condition that leads to conductive deafness, which means that bone conduction is better than air conduction. When testing for this condition, you would expect to see bilateral negative Rinne with central Weber. However, if the disease is in its early stages, the Rinne test may be equivocal. It is important to note that the second and third options do not make sense in the context of otosclerosis. Understanding the effects of otosclerosis on hearing can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to your emergency clinic with worsening pain in his right ear. He had previously been diagnosed with otitis externa and started on antibiotic ear drops by another physician four days ago. However, he reports that the pain has only gotten worse and he has been unable to apply the drops for the past 24 hours due to swelling of the canal. Upon examination, you notice that the right external auditory canal is completely swollen shut and you are unable to see any further. The patient's vital signs are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call ENT
Explanation:If topical antibiotics do not provide relief for otitis externa, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist. This is because the infection can cause swelling and narrowing of the ear canal, making it difficult for antibiotic drops to be effective. In such cases, microsuction and insertion of a pope wick may be necessary, which requires the expertise of an ENT specialist.
Ear syringing should not be performed during an active infection as it will not be helpful.
Steroids are often included in antibiotic ear drops, but they will not be effective if the drops cannot reach the ear canal.
Oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, may be prescribed alongside topical antibiotics if there is concern of a deep tissue infection. However, this is unlikely in a young and otherwise healthy patient, and the primary treatment remains antibiotic drops.
If necrotising otitis externa is suspected, a CT scan may be helpful, but this would be arranged by an ENT specialist and is not necessary in most cases.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 189
Incorrect
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The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. According to his wife, he is experiencing severe dizziness due to labyrinthitis and is unable to leave his bed.
Upon arrival, you find the patient in bed, complaining of intense dizziness that makes him feel like the room is spinning. He has vomited multiple times and cannot stand up. He has never experienced this before.
During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are normal. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. Neurological examination of the limbs shows normal power, tone, reflexes, and coordination. However, he cannot walk for a gait examination. Eye examination shows bidirectional nystagmus on lateral gaze bilaterally. A head impulse test is normal with no catch-up saccades seen. All other cranial nerves are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call ambulance and refer to on-call stroke team
Explanation:The HiNTs exam is a helpful tool for differentiating between vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke in cases of acute vertigo. It consists of three steps, with a fourth step recently suggested for detecting AICA infarcts. The exam assesses for nystagmus, skew deviation, head impulse test, and new unilateral hearing loss. A normal head impulse test is concerning and warrants referral to the acute stroke team. While prochlorperazine may be useful for acute peripheral vestibular neuropathy, betahistine is only licensed for Meniere’s disease. As this patient’s symptoms are ongoing, a TIA clinic would not be appropriate, and urgent neuroimaging should be performed before considering high dose aspirin. If there is any diagnostic uncertainty, referral for same-day assessment is necessary.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of persistent tinnitus in her left ear for the past 5 months. She has also observed a gradual decline in her hearing ability in the same ear. Upon examination, both ears appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction greater than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test lateralises to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:The typical presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. On the other hand, the symptoms of acoustic neuroma may vary depending on the cranial nerve affected. In this case, the patient’s tinnitus and hearing loss suggest that the vestibulocochlear nerve is affected, and vertigo may also be present. Sensorineural hearing loss is observed in acoustic neuroma, whereas otosclerosis, impacted wax, and cholesteatoma cause conductive hearing loss. Meniere’s disease is characterized by progressive hearing loss that fluctuates in severity depending on the attacks.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man contacts his GP seeking advice for his seasonal allergic rhinitis. He has been managing his symptoms with intranasal decongestants, but lately, he has noticed that they are only partially effective. He experiences a runny nose and occasional sneezing, but there are no red flag symptoms such as unilateral obstruction or cacosmia. He has already taken the maximum dose of over-the-counter decongestants and is wondering if the GP can prescribe a higher dose.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the intranasal decongestant
Explanation:Prolonged use of intranasal decongestants like oxymetazoline should be avoided due to the development of tachyphylaxis, where increasing doses are needed to achieve the same effect. Additionally, stopping the medication can lead to rebound symptoms known as rhinitis medicamentosa. Therefore, it is best to encourage patients to discontinue the decongestant rather than prescribing a higher dose. Oral decongestants like pseudoephedrine are not commonly prescribed due to limited evidence supporting their effectiveness. For patients with allergic rhinitis, short-term use of oral corticosteroids may be recommended for severe symptoms, but intranasal corticosteroids and antihistamines are more practical options. Patients should also be advised on self-help strategies like allergen avoidance. Referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for most cases of allergic rhinitis, except for those with red flags, suspected structural abnormalities, diagnostic uncertainty, or persisting symptoms despite optimal primary care management.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 192
Incorrect
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You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.
What is the most suitable medication for treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days
Explanation:Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore throat. She is running a temperature of 39.2ºC and is experiencing difficulty in eating due to the pain, although she is able to tolerate fluids. There are no other associated symptoms such as cough or rash. On examination, her heart rate is 120/min and chest auscultation is normal. Bilateral tonsils are covered in exudate, while ear examination is unremarkable. Apart from supportive care, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of systemic disturbance and requires antibiotic treatment. A 7 to 10-day antibiotic regimen is recommended to effectively eliminate any potential Streptococcus infection. The BNF recommends Phenoxymethylpenicillin as the primary antibiotic option.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the General Practitioner with symptoms consistent with otitis media, which have started in the last 48 hours. On examination, there is a perforation of the tympanic membrane and purulent discharge from the ear. The child has a temperature of 36.5 °C and her heart rate is within normal parameters.
What would be the most appropriate treatment in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Otitis Media in Children: Treatment Options
Acute otitis media is a common childhood infection that can cause pain, fever, and hearing loss. When managing this condition, healthcare providers have several treatment options to consider. Here are some possible approaches:
Immediate Oral Antibiotics: If the child has otorrhoea or bilateral infection, or is under two years old, immediate oral antibiotics are recommended. Parents should be informed that the typical duration of acute otitis media is around three days, but it can last up to one week.
Delayed Antibiotics: In cases where otorrhoea and tympanic perforation are absent, or the child presents at an earlier stage, a prescription for delayed antibiotics may be appropriate. Parents should be advised on when to start the antibiotics, such as if the child experiences persistent fevers or worsening pain.
Oral Decongestants: According to guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), decongestants are not recommended for the management of acute otitis media.
Referral to Ear, Nose and Throat: Immediate referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist is necessary if the child is younger than three months and has tympanic perforation, shows signs of systemic sepsis, or has complicated otitis media (e.g., venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, or mastoiditis). If none of these features are present, starting with oral antibiotics is reasonable.
Analgesia Only: While analgesia can help alleviate pain, it should not be the only treatment offered if the child has a perforation and otorrhoea. Antibiotics should also be prescribed in this case.
Treatment Options for Acute Otitis Media in Children
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a four day history of fever, sore throat and rash on the front of her left leg. On examination she has tonsillar enlargement with cervical lymphadenopathy and has erythema nodosum on her left shin.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-haemolytic streptococcus
Explanation:Strep. pyogenes and its Characteristics
This girl exhibits features that are consistent with Strep. pyogenes, a beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The bacterium is known to cause pharyngitis, and erythema nodosum is also commonly associated with the infection. Additionally, it is responsible for acute rheumatic fever, which is described by the Jones criteria. The treatment of choice for this infection is Penicillin V.
While Epstein-Barr may be a consideration, it is not typically associated with erythema nodosum. It is important to identify the causative agent in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of hearing loss in his left ear. He reports feeling a blockage in the ear and has previously had his ears syringed. Upon examination, the ear is found to be occluded by wax. What is the most appropriate initial management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ear drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for earwax: Ear Drops, Microsuction, and Manual Removal
earwax, also known as cerumen, can cause discomfort and hearing problems if it builds up in the ear canal. The first-line treatment for earwax is ear drops, which can soften the wax and make it easier to remove. Microsuction is a safer alternative to irrigation, but it is not widely available. Manual removal using a probe is also an option. However, there is little evidence on the effectiveness of these treatments.
Various types of ear drops can be used, including sodium bicarbonate, sodium chloride, olive oil, and almond oil. Cerumol® is a commonly used proprietary agent. However, the British National Formulary warns against using docusate sodium (Waxsol®, Molcer®) or urea hydrogen peroxide (Exterol®, Otex®) as they may irritate the external meatus.
Regardless of the type of ear drop used, the patient should lie with the affected ear uppermost for 5-10 minutes after applying the drops. While using any type of ear drop appears to be better than no treatment, it is uncertain if one type of drop is more effective than another. Therefore, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional before attempting to remove earwax at home.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 197
Incorrect
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You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her vertigo has settled but she still has hearing loss and tinnitus on the right side. She is still waiting to be seen by the ENT department but has a few questions about Meniere's disease.
Which statement below regarding Meniere's disease is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around half of people with Meniere's disease have bilateral involvement after 5 years if not treated
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 198
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about mumps infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms and Complications
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.
One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right ear after recently having an ear infection. During examination, you notice a perforated eardrum. He has a soccer game next week and is eager to play. What advice would you give him regarding this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid swimming until the perforation is completely healed
Explanation:It is recommended to refrain from swimming until a perforated tympanic membrane has fully healed, which typically takes longer than a week. Using a swimming cap may not offer adequate protection. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is an infection present, and oral antibiotics are preferred over drops.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.
If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male construction worker had recently noticed a decline in his hearing ability in both ears. As a child, he had experienced several ear infections, including a severe one during a bout of measles that impacted his education. There was no history of deafness in his family. During examination, his tympanic membranes appeared intact, but there were calcified scars anterior to the handle of the malleus in both ears. The Rinne test was positive in both ears, and the Weber test was central in both anterior and posterior positions. Striking the 256 cps tuning fork firmly was necessary to achieve the desired volume. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic acoustic trauma
Explanation:Possible Causes of Deafness in Middle Age
The patient’s medical history indicates a likelihood of tubotympanic problems associated with serous otitis during childhood, as evidenced by scarred tympanic membranes. However, it is unlikely that these issues would cause recent deafness in middle age. The results of the Rinne and Weber tests, using a more accurate tuning frequency of 512, suggest bilateral sensorineural deafness. With no family history, idiopathic premature deafness is less likely.
Ossicular chain disruption is typically a result of direct trauma and is more likely to be unilateral. Given that building workers are often unregulated when it comes to hearing protection, the probable diagnosis is chronic acoustic trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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